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(350-040) CCIE Storage Networking

Cisco 350-040 Exam - Certifysky.com

Free 350-040 Sample Questions:

1.What is TCP fast recovery?
A: It is an algorithm that uses fast retransmit when a missing segment is detected.
B: It is an algorithm that initiates slow start instead of congestion avoidance after fast retransmit sends what appears to be the missing segment.
C: It is an algorithm that starts congestion avoidance instead of slow start after fast retransmit sends what appears to be the missing segment.
D: It is an algorithm that after a new connection is established with a host on another network, initializes the congestion window to one segment and each time an ACK is received, increases the congestion window by one segment
Answer: C

2.What statement is TRUE?
A: A SPAN session can capture traffic originating from or destined for an end device, while an MDS fcanalyzer can only capture traffic originating from, or destined for, the supervisor.
B: An MDS fcanalyzer can capture traffic originating from, or destined for, an end device, while a SPAN can only capture traffic originating from, or destined for, the supervisor.
C: SPAN cannot capture traffic destined for the supervisor; the MDS fcanalyzer must be used instead.
D: SPAN can be used to determine why a port cannot autonegotiate to 2Gbps instead of 1Gbps.
E: Only when an SD port detects that it is attached to a Cisco PAA (Port Analyzer Adapter) will it use Buffer to Buffer Flow Control.
Answer: A

3.A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 1009 on an MDS. What is the correct output of the "show vsan 1009" command?
A: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
B: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
C: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:2 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
D: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
E: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
Answer: D

4.AAA(TACACS+, Radius) protocols can not be used to authenticate and/or authorize what on MDS?
A: Telnet and Console access
B: SSH
C: RBAC
D: dhchap for fabric security
E: CUP
Answer: E

5.A customer needs SAN extension for a distance of 200 kilometers for a mission-critical application. Assuming the customer owns the dark fibers between the 2 locations, what technology can provide the best reliability, performance, and scalability?
A: Single mode dark fiber with long wave GBIC/SFP
B: FCIP over dedicated leased line
C: DWDM with BLSR (bidirectional line switched ring)
D: CWDM with failover protection by application
Answer: C

6."SCSI LUN discovery" is triggered automatically when:
A: An IPS module is installed in an MDS switch
B: A CSM module is installed in an MDS switch
C: An ASM module is installed in an MDS switch
D: A 16 port FC Line card installed in an MDS switch
E: The switch has dual supervisors
Answer: A, B, C

7.When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this VSAN?
A: The VSAN is a FICON VSAN.
B: In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN.
C: QoS is enabled for the VSAN.
D: Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
E: Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
Answer: B

8.ip access-list acl1 permit ip any any ip access-list acl1 deny tcp 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 eq port telnet any ip access-list acl1 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq port telnet any ip access-list acl1 deny icmp any 10.1.1.1 ip access-list acl1 permit icmp 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 any ip access-list acl1 deny udp any any interface mgmt0 ip access-group acl1 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 Given the above IP access list configured on MDS, Which are true?
A:MDS can not telnet to host 10.0.1.1
B:Host 10.0.1.1 can telnet to MDS 10.1.1.1
C:Host 10.0.1.1 can not ping with ICMP to MDS mgmt0
D:MDS mgmt0 can not access tftp server using UDP
E:MDS mgmt 0 can ping host 10.0.1.1
Answer: B, E

9.What is a valid file type and name created when using the Performance Manger wizard to create a collections file for a switch named MDS2 ?
A: MDS2_PM.xls
B: MDS2_PM.doc
C: C9216-2_06242004.xls
D: MDS2_PM.html
E: MDS2.xml
Answer: E

10.When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this VSAN?
A: The VSAN is a FICON VSAN.
B: In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN.
C: QoS is enabled for the VSAN.
D: Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
E: Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
Answer: B

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350-040 Exam Prep

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Comprehensive questions with complete details Questions accompanied by exhibits (when applicable) Verified Answers Researched by Industry Experts Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Actual Exams (when applicable) Questions updated on regular basis These questions and answers are backed by our GUARANTEE Like actual certification exams our product is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs) Our 350-040 Exam will provide you with exam questions and verified answers that reflect the actual exam. These questions and answers provide you with the experience of taking the actual test. Our 350-040 Exam is not just questions and answers. They are your access to high technical expertise and accelerated learning capacity. Certification Experts, Certified Computer Trainers, Technical Coworker and Comprehensive Language Masters, who have a solid, verified and certified background and high technical expertise, have compiled these detailed questions and answers. 350-040 Certification preparation Q and A provided by Certifysky.com will make you feel like you are taking an actual exam at a Prometric or VUE center. Furthermore, we are constantly updating our 350-040 Exam. These 350-040 Exam updates are supplied free of charge to Certify Sky.com customers- hereby becoming an investment rather than a disposable product. Our clients receive the most reliable and up-to-date information when they decide to take the exam, just contact us. Our candidates walk into the Testing Room as confident as a Certification Administrator. Like actual certification exams our 350-040 Exam is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs). After purchasing our products you are just a step away from testing for certification. Still not convinced? Try our free samples or choose to buy your 350-040 Practice Exam now! Our 350-040 practice exam features: Comprehensive questions with complete details, answers and references Exhibits and graphical representations (when applicable) Verified Answers Researched by Industry Experts Questions updated on regular basis Like actual certification exams our product is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs). Our questions and answers are backed by our GUARANTEE. Our 350-040 practice exams and study questions are composed by current and active Information Technology experts, who use their experience in preparing you for your future in IT. Commitment to Your Success: At Certifysky.com we are committed to you ongoing success. Our exams and questions are constantly being updated and compared to industry standards. You are not about to purchase a disposable product. 350-040 practice exam updates are supplied free of charge. Regardless of how soon you decide to take the actual 350-040 examination certification, you will be able to walk into the testing room as confident as the Certification Administrator. The CertifySky 350-040 study guide is guaranteed to be 100% braindump free. We value the quality of training you receive through the 350-040 study guide and will never support 350-040 braindumps, or any 350-040 brain dump site. 350-040 braindump sites cannot compare to the understanding, learning and comprehension you will gain from a non-350-040 braindumps site, based on facts and case studies, like Certify Sky.

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650-621 LCSAWALAN Cisco Lifecycle Services Advanced Wireless

Cisco 650-621 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 650-621 Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following WLAN service components all occur in the prepare phase?
A. High-level Design, Proof of Concept, Technology Strategy Development
B. System Requirements Validation, WLAN wired Network Integration Assessment, Operations Readiness Assessment
C. Proposal Development, Customer Education, Service Assurance
D. Security Assessment, Security Administration, Staging Plan Development
Answer: A

2. Which service component within the prepare phase provides a technology-focused and/or business-focused demonstration of the wireless technology solution to highlight the features and benefits?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following.
A. High-Level Design Development
B. Customer Education
C. Technology Strategy Development
D. Proposal Delivery
E. Proof of Concept
Answer: B

3. The activity of identifying the customer's support model for WLAN is part of which service component in the plan phase? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Operations Readiness Assessment
B. Site Readiness assessment
C. Proposal Delivery
D. Account Planning
Answer: A

4. In the wireless design phase, which service component provides a comprehensive, implementation-ready design for the customer's wireless solution? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Business Plan
B. Staging Plan
C. Detailed Design Development
D. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
Answer: C

5. Which two service components are performed during the wireless implement phase? (Choose two.) Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following:
A. Wireless Readiness Assessment
B. Project Planning
C. Site Readiness Specification
D. Systems Acceptance Testing
E. Configuration Management
Answer: B, D

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650-180 SMB Solutions for Engineers (SMBEN)

Cisco 650-180 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 650-180 Sample Questions: 1. In a traditional telephony environment, the station shelf will be replaced by which of the following in an IP telephony deployment? A. a call control server B. a TDM trunk shelf C. the auto-attendant application D. a Layer 2 switch Answer: D 2. On a network where voice communication is mission-critical to business operation, which Cisco support service product targets customers with up to 48 users? A. Cisco SMARTnet for SBCS B. Cisco Technical Assistance Center C. Cisco Smart Care Service D. Cisco Smart Foundation Service E. SMARTnet Partner Service Answer: A 3. If a customer insists to use a traditional approach to a phone system, which of the following configuration works normally? A. the SPA3000 telephone adapters with an FXO gateway B. SPA9000 Service Model with PSTN Service only plus SPA400 C. SPA9000 Service Model with VoIP Only service D. SPA9000 Service Model with simultaneous VoIP and PSTN services Answer: B 4. A Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) trunk is typically the voice interconnect between any business and the outside world. Which of the following dial plan scenario may require PSTN trunks for outbound calls? A. A subnet of the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voice-mail system have direct inward dial numbers, and the remaining employees do not have direct inward dial numbers. B. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voice-mail system have direct inward dial numbers using analog trunks. C. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voice-mail system have direct inward dial numbers using digital interfaces. Answer: C 5. An integral part of the Cisco Unified Communications family of products, Cisco Unified CallConnector is integrated with Cisco Unified CallManager Express to delivers easy-to-use call control and presence features that can increase productivity and enhance communications. Which two of the following answers are benefits provided by Cisco Unified CallConnector to customer communication? (Choose two) A. Screen Pops for incoming calls B. status of coworkers before placing a call C. click-to-dial access only for WebEx meetings D. Connect feature in Communications Manager Express Answer: A, B 6. Compared with standard voice-mail systems, what is the advantage of integrated messaging? A. provides a toolbar to see the status of coworkers B. provides text versions of your voice-mail messages C. eliminates the need for a live operator to answer the phone D. forwards voice-mail messages to your email at .wav files Answer: D 7. The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is a signaling protocol, widely used for controlling multimedia communication sessions such as voice and video calls over Internet Protocol (IP). Which three of the following are features of the SIP protocol? (Choose three) A. assigns text-based device addresses B. sends requests to network gateways C. provides a secure communication path D. sessions are initiated by end devices Answer: A, B, D 8. In a keyswitch system, you can set up most of your phones to have a nearly identical configuration, in which: A. All IP Phones in the system have a single unique extension number. B. All IP Phones are able to answer any incoming PSTN call on any line. C. PSTN calls are routed through a receptionist or automated attendant. Answer: B 9. Refer to the following protocols, which three have something to do with a voice network? (Choose three) A. SCCP B. RTP C. FXS D. TFTP Answer: A, B, D 10. Which one of the following feature is the most important one of the Cisco (Linksys) Small Business NSS platform to distinguish it from other NAS systems? A. the OS resides on the chassis B. the option for RAID 10 C. a disk-based encryption mechanism D. one terabyte storage capacity per drive Answer: A

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650-251	LCSAUC Cisco Lifecycle Services Advanced IP Communications	$79.00
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Cisco 642-446 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 642-446 Sample Questions: 1. Which three steps need to be performed on a third party SIP phone device when adding it to Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.) A. Select XML as the method to send the third party SIP phone its configuration file. B. Add the MAC address of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to the SIP phone configuration. C. Set the directory numbers to match the directory numbers configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. D. Set the digest user ID in the SIP device to match the digest user ID in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. E. Set the TLS user ID and password in the SIP phone to match the TLS user ID and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. F. Set the proxy address in the SIP phone to match the IP address or fully qualified domain name of Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Answer: C, E, F 2. Which two gateway configuration statements are required in order to enable Cisco Unified Communications Manager to control a T1 PRI in an MGCP gateway? (Choose two.) A. mgcp B. ccm-manager config C. pri-group configuration on the controller D. mgcp call-agent pointing to tftp server E. isdn l3-backhaul ccm-manager on the serial interface F. ccm-manager config server {TFTP ip_address} Answer: B, F 3. If a service is currently deactivated, how can the service be reactivated from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability Control Center page? A. by clicking on the radio button to the left of the service on the Control Center page B. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Service Activation and then clicking on the radio button to the left of the service to activate it C. by selecting Tools > Service Activation, selecting the correct server, and clicking on the radio button to the left of the service to activate it D. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Tools, clicking on the radio button to the left of the service that needs to be activated, and then returning to the Control Center to activate the service Answer: C 4. Which two of these media resources are available only in hardware? (Choose two.) A. transcoding B. audio conferencing C. MTP D. annunciator E. MOH F. voice termination Answer: A, F 5. Which three steps are necessary in order to configure DHCP for phone support using the GUI in Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.) A. add the DHCP server IP address to the device pool B. activate DHCP Monitor Service C. add and configure the DHCP server D. start the application on an external server E. configure the DHCP subnet F. download the DHCP server application from the plug-in page Answer: B, C, E 6. Which two of these are characteristics of multicast music on hold? (Choose two.) A. point-to-multipoint, two-way audio stream B. separate audio stream for each connection C. multiple audio streams that require multiple multicast IP addresses D. support for all codecs that are also supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers E. conservation of system resources and bandwidth F. the requirement that there always be a dedicated MOH server Answer: C, E 7. Which three determinations are possible when using the Presence feature in a Cisco Unified Communications network? (Choose three.) A. Determine if an IP phone has been unplugged if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher. B. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is outside the Cisco Unified Communications cluster of the watcher. C. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher. D. Determine if a set of IP phones is on hook or off hook if if the phones are in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher. E. Determine if an IP phone has been moved or the user has been changed if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher. F. Determine if an IP phone has been off hook beyond a specified period of time if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher. Answer: B, C, D 8. The Ajax Corporation is designing an IP telephony network using Cisco MCS 7845 Series servers, each one capable of supporting 7500 devices. The design must meet these requirements: (1) be cost-effective (2) support up to 7500 phones (3) provide a minimal level of redundancy Which configuration will meet Ajax Corporation's needs? A. two Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher and TFTP server combined 1 primary subscriber B. three Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher and TFTP server combined 1 primary subscriber 1 backup subscriber C. four Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher 1 TFTP server 1 primary subscriber 1 backup subscriber D. five Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher 1 TFTP server 1 primary subscriber 2 backup subscribers Answer: B 9. What is one difference between Cisco inline power and 802.3af PoE? A. Cisco inline power should only be activated for those ports that require PoE to avoid oversubscription. B. You must determine the total number of IP phones the switch can support with 802.3af to avoid oversubscription. C. You must specify which set of pins the powered device is going to accept power on for 802.3af. D. Cisco inline power provides a variable amount of power by using CDP. Answer: B 10. Which IP phone hardening technique will prevent call signaling and media stream tampering? A. disable GARP B. disable PC-to-voice VLAN access C. use MIC firmware images signed by Cisco D. store IP phone configuration files on the SFTP server E. deploy authentication and encryption between IP phones and Cisco Unified Communications Manager Answer: E Cisco 642-446 Cheat-Test Exams Code Exam Name/Product Description Price Version Order 642-446 Implementing Cisco Unified Communications IP Telephony Part 1 $79.00 9.5 Add to Cart 642-446 Exam Preparation from Cheat-test.com include: Comprehensive questions with complete details Questions accompanied by exhibits Verified Answers Researched by Industry Experts Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Actual Exams Questions updated on regular basis These questions and answers are backed by our GUARANTEE Like actual certification exams our product is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs) Our 642-446 Exam will provide you with exam questions and verified answers that reflect the actual exam. 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Cisco 642-243 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 642-243 Sample Questions:

1. Refer to the exhibit.

In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, the Cisco Unified ICM Script Editor provides a "Monitor Mode" that is useful in understanding how calls are being handled in real time. Given the screen capture, which two states describe the calls handled by this Call Routing Script? (Choose two.)
A. Thirty calls are currently in queue for the "Gold" Skill Group.
B. Three calls failed the Queue to Skill Group Node because no "Gold" agents were logged in.
C. Agents in the "Gold" Skill Group were immediately available for 20 calls.
D. Four calls remained in queue on the Cisco Unified IP IVR waiting for available agents and heard the prompts played by the "qmsg" script.
E. "CCM1_1" is the Media Routing Domain of the "Gold" Skill Group.
Answer: B, C

2. Drag and Drop Question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:

3. Drag and Drop Question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:

4. Drag and Drop Question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:

5. To use the Cisco Unified ICM dumplog utility to gather the Call Router's MDS log from Monday, March 10, 2008, begining at 9:30, and to ensure that you do not get binary data in the log, which command line syntax would you use?
A. dump mds /bt 09:30 /nobinary /o
B. dumplog mds /bd 03/10/2008 /09:30 /o
C. dumplog mds /bd 03/10/2008 /bt 09:30 /nobin /o
D. dumplog /bd 03/10/2008 /bt 09:30 /nobin /o
Answer: C

6. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, which three traces would you apply for a Cisco Unified Communications Manager PIM in the Cisco Unified ICM PROCMON tool? (Choose three.)
A. trace *low* /on
B. trace csta* /on
C. trace *event /on
D. trace closedcalls /on
E. trace precall /on
F. trace routing /on
Answer: B, C, E

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Cisco 642-274 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 642-274 Sample Questions:

1. Which is the reason that the video terminal manufacturer, models, and versions are important parts of the planning process?

A. Only a few devices can support SIP and video.
B. All video terminals can dial in to Cisco Unified MeetingPlace video meetings.
C. Cisco Unified MeetingPlace is a SIP-based solution and H.320 devices cannot be supported.
D. Some versions of H.323, SIP, and H.320 video devices cannot negotiate the mid-call escalation correctly.

Answer: D

2. You work as a network engineer for an IT company. Observe the following items carefully, which two fields can be used to customize scheduling and hide specific fields in the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Web scheduling UI form and Outlook plug-in form? (Choose two.)

A. "Customize Outlook Interface" in MeetingPlace Web Admin
B. "Customize Outlook Interface" in Application Server Admin
C. "Scheduling Details Page" in MeetingPlace Web Admin
D. "Account Basics" in Application Server Admin

Answer: B, D

3. Which is the maximum acceptable site-to-site round-trip delay WAN/LAN requirement for Cisco Unified MeetingPlace deployments?

A. 1500 ms round trip
B. 150 ms round trip
C. 150 sec round trip
D. there is no specific requirement

Answer: B

4. In the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace system, which two global video modes and settings affect all video blades? (Choose two.)

A. Standard Video up to 24 ports max with 128 kb/s~2 Mb/s per port
B. Low-End Video up to 24 ports max with 128 kb/s~384 kb/s per port
C. Desktop Video up to 48 ports max with 128 kb/s~2 Mb/s per port
D. Desktop Video up to 48 ports max with 128 kb/s~384 kb/s per port

Answer: A, D

5. Which procedure can best restore the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Application Server master database?

A. Use an FTP file transfer to manually move files and issue a restore command in the Applications Server CLI.
B. Use Telnet to access the Application Server and issue a manual restore command.
C. Use the Backup GUI in the Administration Center to do an automatic restore.
D. Use SSH to access the Application Server CLI and issue a manual restore command.

Answer: D

6. Which three are essential considerations for a dial plan in a Cisco Unified MeetingPlace solution? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Unified MeetingPlace requires at least one dial-in number.
B. Implementing dialing restrictions can affect Cisco Unified MeetingPlace functionality.
C. Calling partitions and calling search spaces can affect Cisco Unified MeetingPlace functionality.
D. Calling partitions and calling search spaces do not affect Cisco Unified MeetingPlace functionality.

Answer: A, B, C

7. How to upgrade the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Audio and Video Blades to a newer release?

A. insert CD with new software, execute file locally
B. SSH connection and transfer file to blades, then execute file
C. remote desktop connection and FTP file to blades, then execute file
D. via laptop IP connection, then execute file

Answer: D

8. A command-line interface (CLI) is a mechanism for interacting with a computer operating system or software by typing commands to perform specific tasks. Which CLI command is used to check the date and time on the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Application Server?

A. ntp_check
B. timezone
C. time
D. date

Answer: D

9. Refer to the following components, which three are deployed in a typical secured Cisco Unified MeetingPlace solution? (Choose three.)

A. antivirus on the Media Server blades
B. Cisco Security Agent on the Web Server
C. Cisco Security Agent on the Application Server
D. SSL certificates

Answer: B, C, D

10. What are required from WebEx prior to configuration on the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace side while initially configuring and testing Cisco Unified MeetingPlace with WebEx integration? (Multiple choice)

A. site name
B. password for WebEx site administration
C. partner ID
D. site ID

Answer: A, B, C, D

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Cisco Exam Code: 642-545
Cisco Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis and Response System
Cheat-test Last Update: August 2009
Cheat-Test Price: $79.00
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Cisco 642-545 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 642-545 Sample Questions:

1. Which three options are true with regard to the Cisco Security MARS global and local controller architecture? (Choose three.)

A. All local controllers events are propagated to the global controller for correlations.
B. One global controller can support multiple local controllers.
C. Each zone can have one local controller.
D. Incidents can be viewed on the global controller based on a selected local controller.

Answer: B, C, D

2. Which two alert actions can notify a user that a Cisco Security MARS rule has fired, and that an incident has been logged? (Choose two.)

A. syslog
B. Short Message Service
C. OPSEC-LEA (clear and encrypted)
D. XML notification

Answer: B, D

3. Which option is correct about the case management feature of Cisco Security MARS?

A. It is used in conjunction with the Cisco Security MARS incident escalation feature for incident reporting.
B. It is used to capture, combine, and preserve user-selected Cisco Security MARS data within a specialized report.
C. It is used to automatically collect and save information on incidents, sessions, queries, and reports dynamically without user interventions.
D. It is used to very quickly evaluate the state of the network.

Answer: B

4. Which two statements accurately describe the Cisco Security MARS rules? (Choose two)

A. Drop rules are treated as global rules so it will automatically propagate to the Cisco Security MARS global controller.
B. Predefined system rules are treated as global rules. When an incident is fired by a system rule on the Cisco Security MARS local controller, the system rule propagates to the Cisco Security MARS global controller.
C. It is not possible to edit the global rules created on the Cisco Security MARS global controller from the Cisco Security MARS local controller.
D. Rules can be created on both the Cisco Security MARS global controller and the Cisco Security MARS local controllers. Rules on the Cisco Security MARS global controller will propagate down to the Cisco Security MARS local controllers.

Answer: B, D

5. The Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System (Cisco Security MARS) is an appliance-based, all-inclusive solution that provides unmatched insight and control of your existing security deployment. Which three items are correct with regard to Cisco Security MARS rules? (Choose three.)

A. There are three types of rules.
B. Rules can be deleted.
C. Rules can be created using a query.
D. Rules trigger incidents.

Answer: A, C, D

6. According to the exhibit displayed in the screen, the Local Controller-Global Controller state is active but the communications do not appear to work. Which is the most likely cause of this situation?

A. The Local Controller and Global Controller port 80 traffic is being blocked by a firewall.
B. This issue results from a time synchronization mismatch.
C. You forgot to click Activate for Global Controller-based topological changes to be pushed to the Local Controller.
D. This issue results from a backlog of data that is caused by a temporary disconnect of the Local Controller and Global Controller.

Answer: D

7. Study the exhibit carefully. Which icon can be chosen to generate the access rules information displayed toward the bottom of the screen?

A. Incident Vector icon
B. Security Manager Policy Table Lookup icon
C. ISR Device Manager Policy icon
D. Raw Events icon

Answer: B

8. Which additional steps should you take after manually adding the BR-FW-1 device shown in the MARS GUI screen?

A. Click "Submit" to enable the device.
B. Click "Submit" to test access to the device, When access is successful. Click "Activate" to activate the device.
C. Click "Activate" to activate the device, then click "Submit" to save the device configuration.
D. Click "Discover" to initiate manual discovery. When discovery is completed, click "Submit", then "Activate."

Answer: D

9. Which three items about the Query displayed on the MARS GUI screen are correct? (Choose three.)

A. Query will match any source IP address.
B. Query will only match a destination IP address of 10.1.1.1 OR 10.1.1.25.
C. Query will only match a destination IP address range from 10.1.1.1 to 10.1.1.25.
D. Query will only match any services using the TCP-highPort OR UDP-highPort services groups.

Answer: A, C, D

10. Which three reporting devices could be added to the MARS appliance by use of the "Add SW security apps on new host?" (Choose three.)

A. Cisco ACS
B. FWSM
C. SNORT
D. generic web server

Answer: A, C, D

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