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2011-11-10T23:42:00.000-08:00

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Related Exams:
642-373 – Cisco Express Foundation for Systems Engineers
642-446 – Implementing Cisco Unified Communications IP Telephony Part 1
650-059 – LCSARS Cisco Lifecycle Services Advanced Routing and Switching
650-393 – LCSE Cisco Lifecycle Services Express
642-566 – Security Solutions for Systems Engineers

CCIE written exam free study guide

2011-10-11T22:53:00.000-07:00

The TopITexams CCIE written exam is a two-hour qualification exam, taken at a Cisco authorized Pearson VUE testing center. The exam uses a combination of multiple choice questions and simulations to assess the skills listed under Exam Topics. Free testking pass4sure actualtests Exams are closed book and no reference materials are allowed.

Exam Number : 350-001
Exam time: 120 minutes
Questions and Answers: Question 90 ~ 110
Exam Language: English
Examination bodies: VUE
Exam questions: multiple choice test questions
Type of technology: routing and switching
Professional direction: Network Engineer

Exam Sections and Sub-task Objectives

1.00 Implement Layer 2 Technologies

1.10 Implement Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
(a) 802.1d
(b) 802.1w
(c) 801.1s
(d) Loop guard
(e) Root guard
(f) Bridge protocol data unit (BPDU) guard
(g) Storm control
(h) Unicast flooding
(i) Port roles, failure propagation, and loop guard operation

1.20 Implement VLAN and VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)

1.30 Implement trunk and trunk protocols, EtherChannel, and load-balance

1.40 Implement Ethernet technologies
(a) Speed and duplex
(b) Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet
(c) PPP over Ethernet (PPPoE)

1.50 Implement Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN), Remote Switched Port Analyzer (RSPAN), and flow control

1.60 Implement Frame Relay
(a) Local Management Interface (LMI)
(b) Traffic shaping
(c) Full mesh
(d) Hub and spoke
(e) Discard eligible (DE)

1.70 Implement High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and PPP

2.00 Implement IPv4

2.10 Implement IP version 4 (IPv4) addressing, subnetting, and variable-length subnet masking (VLSM)

2.20 Implement IPv4 tunneling and Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

2.30 Implement IPv4 RIP version 2 (RIPv2)

2.40 Implement IPv4 Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
(a) Standard OSPF areas
(b) Stub area
(c) Totally stubby area
(d) Not-so-stubby-area (NSSA)
(e) Totally NSSA
(f) Link-state advertisement (LSA) types
(g) Adjacency on a point-to-point and on a multi-access network
(h) OSPF graceful restart

2.50 Implement IPv4 Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
(a) Best path
(b) Loop-free paths
(c) EIGRP operations when alternate loop-free paths are available, and when they are not available
(d) EIGRP queries
(e) Manual summarization and autosummarization
(f) EIGRP stubs

2.60 Implement IPv4 Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
(a) Next hop
(b) Peering
(c) Internal BorderGateway Protocol (IBGP) and External Border Gateway Protocol (EBGP)

2.70 Implement policy routing

2.80 Implement Performance Routing (PfR) and Cisco Optimized Edge Routing (OER)

2.90 Implement filtering, route redistribution, summarization, synchronization, attributes, and other advanced features

3.00 Implement IPv6

3.10 Implement IP version 6 (IPv6) addressing and different addressing types

3.20 Implement IPv6 neighbor discovery

3.30 Implement basic IPv6 functionality protocols

3.40 Implement tunneling techniques

3.50 Implement OSPF version 3 (OSPFv3)

3.60 Implement EIGRP version 6 (EIGRPv6)

3.70 Implement filtering and route redistribution

4.00 Implement MPLS Layer 3 VPNs

4.10 Implement Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)

4.20 Implement Layer 3 virtual private networks (VPNs) on provider edge (PE), provider (P), and customer edge (CE) routers

4.30 Implement virtual routing and forwarding (VRF) and Multi-VRF Customer Edge (VRF-Lite)

5.00 Implement IP Multicast

5.10 Implement Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) sparse mode

5.20 Implement Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP)

5.30 Implement interdomain multicast routing

5.40 Implement PIM Auto-Rendezvous Point (Auto-RP), unicast rendezvous point (RP), and bootstrap router (BSR)

5.50 Implementmulticast tools, features, and source-specific multicast

5.60 Implement IPv6 multicast, PIM, and related multicast protocols, such as Multicast Listener Discovery (MLD)

6.00 Implement Network Security

6.01 Implement access lists

6.02 Implement Zone Based Firewall

6.03 Implement Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF)

6.04 Implement IP Source Guard

6.05 Implement authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) (configuring the AAA server is not required, only the client- side (IOS) is configured)

6.06 Implement Control Plane Policing (CoPP)

6.07 Implement Cisco IOS Firewall

6.08 Implement Cisco IOS Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

6.09 Implement Secure Shell (SSH)

6.10 Implement 802.1x

6.11 Implement NAT

6.12 Implement routing protocol authentication

6.13 Implement device access control

6.14 Implement security features

7.00 Implement Network Services

7.10 Implement Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)

7.20 Implement Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)

7.30 Implement Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

7.40 Implement Network Time Protocol (NTP)

7.50 Implement DHCP

7.60 Implement Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)

8.00 Implement Quality of Service (QoS)

8.10 Implement Modular QoS CLI (MQC)
(a) Network-Based Application Recognition (NBAR)
(b) Class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ), modified deficit round robin (MDRR), and low latency queuing (LLQ)
(c) Classification
(d) Policing
(e) Shaping
(f) Marking
(g) Weighted random early detection (WRED) and random early detection (RED)
(h) Compression

8.20 Implement Layer 2 QoS: weighted round robin (WRR), shaped round robin (SRR), and policies

8.30 Implement link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI) for Frame Relay

8.40 Implement generic traffic shaping

8.50 Implement Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)

8.60 Implement Cisco AutoQoS

9.00 Troubleshoot a Network

9.10 Troubleshoot complex Layer 2 network issues

9.20 Troubleshoot complex Layer 3 network issues

9.30 Troubleshoot a network in response to application problems

9.40 Troubleshoot network services

9.50 Troubleshoot network security

10.00 Optimize the Network

10.01 Implement syslog and local logging

10.02 Implement IP Service Level Agreement SLA

10.03 Implement NetFlow

10.04 Implement SPAN, RSPAN, and router IP traffic export (RITE)

10.05 Implement Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

10.06 Implement Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager (EEM)

10.07 Implement Remote Monitoring (RMON)

10.08 Implement FTP

10.09 Implement TFTP

10.10 Implement TFTP server on router

10.11 Implement Secure Copy Protocol (SCP)

10.12 Implement HTTP and HTTPS

10.13 Implement Telnet

11.00 Evaluate proposed changes to a Network

11.01 Evaluate interoperability of proposed technologies against deployed technologies
(a) Changes to routing protocol parameters
(b) Migrate parts of a network to IPv6
(c) Routing Protocol migration
(d) Adding multicast support
(e) Migrate spanning tree protocol
(f) Evaluate impact of new traffic on existing QoS design

11.02 Determine operational impact of proposed changes to an existing network
(a) Downtime of network or portions of network
(b) Performance degradation
(c) Introducing security breaches

11.03 Suggest Alternative solutions when incompatible changes are proposed to an existing network
(a) Hardware/Software upgrades
(b) Topology shifts
(c) Reconfigurations

2011-08-05T02:30:00.000-07:00

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640-460	Implementing Cisco IOS Unified Communications
640-553	IINS Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security
640-721	Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Network Essentials
640-801	CCNA: (Cisco Certified Network Associate)
640-802	Cisco Certified Network Associate
640-811	Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices
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642-812	Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks
642-825	ISCW - Implementing Secure Converged Wide Area Networks
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642-801	Building Scalable Cisco Internetworks (BSCI)
642-811	Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks (BCMSN)
642-821	Building Cisco Remote Access Networks (BCRAN)
642-831	Cisco Internetwork Troubleshooting (CIT)
642-891	Composite Exam

the most important measures to get Cisco CCNP 642-825 certification

2011-07-14T05:44:00.000-07:00

You need to spend a lot of time on studying to get a Cisco certification. Although each certification is different a few following steps for introducing is basically the same. Take 642-825 as an example.You should pay attention to the following words if you are interested in CCNP or Cisco certification or just preparing to get one.
Firstly, select and decide on a certificate. Some people think that this step does not matter; in fact, they are wrong, because only by making your direction clear can you send off.
Evaluate your capacity and experience. Find the distance between where you are and where you want to be for achieving 642-825.
* Study and preparation: Books are the best teacher, and the first step is to master the books. Texbooks are generally cheap and useful, and we should make full use of them.
* Browsing CCNP discussion in IT forum frequently, there you can share examination experience and lessons with other people who are preparing CCNP examination too.
* It is also a good choice for you to attend a training class if you have enough time and money.
* Besides, you can try to do some tests online, because it’s quite easy for you to find some exercises which are similar to the 642-825 test questions. The more excercises you do, the more famaliar you are with the process of the test.
* Often visit the 642-825 official online web where will publish the latest news about the ratification.
Register for the exam. Now the registration for the exam is very convenience, usually done in the way of online registration. Operate following the prompts and it will be OK.
Keep on going to obtain more certificates. Don’t think it is the concluded after getting the CCNP certificate. You can go and seek for other exams which can upgrade your current certificate.
The last to emphasize is that taking the exam to get a certificate is in order to learn more knowledge so unless you have made sufficient preparation you shouldn’t take it for granted.
Hot Exams:
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2011-06-13T04:34:00.000-07:00

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Related Certifications: CCVP, IP Communications
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Cisco 642-426 exam – Troubleshooting Unified Communications (TUC)
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Cisco 642-642 exam – Quality of Service (QoS)

Cisco initially had a single CCNA exam

2011-02-15T21:50:00.000-08:00

Cisco initially had a single CCNA exam that served the purpose of being the first certification examination of networks. However, lately the Cisco team has divided this examination into two individual tests namely ICND1 and ICND2. Many debates have been done in order to analyze if this move would prove to be beneficial or not. Here we will discuss what were the reasons that made Cisco split up the Cheat-Test free Testking cram 642-436 exam into two.
The most evident reason is that since CCNA is the entry-level exam, it has to be an introduction for people getting into the fields of networking. Therefore, it has to sum up a number of basic topics to give a better knowledge to the students who are attempting. With the rapid development of technologies the list of basic concepts for Cisco examination has widened therefore the split does seem like a good idea. Voice over IP, broadband internet and wireless networking are some of the most common concepts being implemented today however these were not in the market several years back.
This great rise in technologies and rapid increase in concept has made it impossible to cover all the important topics in one exam. The two papers are better equipped to serve the purpose of testing the basic networking knowledge. It’s even a possibility that over time Cisco might add up CCENT as a prerequisite to the already very basic examination of CCNA to give the professionals a better understanding of basic networking.
Another basic reason for Cisco examination split is that more and more high school students are attempting the Cisco examination everyday and due to the lack of field experience and professional knowledge a large number of these students end up failing the examination. By having the CCNA course split in two parts, the high school students have a better chance towards passing the course as now they will be able to have better basic knowledge divided into sections which will make it easier for them to grasp the concepts.
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Cisco CCNA 640-822 Exam Questions & Verified Answers download, Free 640-822 dumps torrent, Best 640-822 practice test

2011-01-17T03:57:00.000-08:00

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Related Cisco Certification Exams:

640-802 Cisco Certified Network Associate

640-816 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2

640-822 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1

640-863 Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions

642-813 Implementing Cisco Switched Networks

642-832 Troubleshooting And Maintaing Cisco IP Networks

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2011-01-10T08:56:00.000-08:00

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640-816 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2

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642-832 Troubleshooting And Maintaing Cisco IP Networks

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CT Cisco 642-453 exam Q&A

2010-10-20T06:49:00.000-07:00

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Related Exams:
642-446 – Implementing Cisco Unified Communications IP Telephony Part 1
132-S-911.2 – Specialist IP Telephony Implement & Support Elective Exam
642-105 – Implementing Cisco Unified Messaging
640-816 – Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2
642-456 – Implementing Cisco Unified Communications Manager Part 2 (CIPT2 v6.0)

Breathing Cisco 642-551 question question

2010-09-27T10:50:00.000-07:00

642-551 is the code of Securing Cisco Network Devices Exam(SND) which contains 62 Q&As. It is associated with a Cisco Cisco certification. Cheat-Test 642-551 brain dumps exam update time is Sep 07th,2010, and the lowest price of this exam is $79.00.

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000-015 - IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Implementation
000-111 - IBM Distributed Systems Storage Solutions Version 7
220-702 - CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition)
70-291 - MCDBA Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure
642-456 - Implementing Cisco Unified Communications Manager Part 2 (CIPT2 v6.0)
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2010-09-27T10:49:00.000-07:00

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2010-07-24T21:31:00.000-07:00

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2010-06-23T05:06:00.000-07:00

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2010-06-23T05:05:00.000-07:00

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2010-04-17T08:43:00.000-07:00

Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1
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350-020 CCIE SP Optical Qualification Exam
350-021 CCIE SP Cable Qualification Exam
350-023 CCIE SP WAN Switching
350-026 CCIE SP Content Networking ENU
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350-029-LAB CCIE Service Provider Lab exam
350-030 CCIE Voice Written Exam
350-030-LAB CCIE Voice Lab exam
350-040 CCIE Storage Networking
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352-001 Cisco Certified Design Expert Qualification Exam
CCIE-RS-LAB CCIE-RS-LAB (Routing & Switching)
CCIE-SP-LAB CCIE S/P Real Labs
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640-802 Cisco Certified Network Associate
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646-985 Data Center Networking Solution Sales

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2010-04-17T08:42:00.000-07:00

Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2
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350-018 CCIE Pre-Qualification Test for Security (CCIE Written)
350-018-LAB CCIE Pre-Qualification Test for Security (Lab Exam)
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350-026 CCIE SP Content Networking ENU
350-029 CCIE SP Written Exam
350-029-LAB CCIE Service Provider Lab exam
350-030 CCIE Voice Written Exam
350-030-LAB CCIE Voice Lab exam
350-040 CCIE Storage Networking
350-050 CCIE Wireless Written Exam
352-001 Cisco Certified Design Expert Qualification Exam
CCIE-RS-LAB CCIE-RS-LAB (Routing & Switching)
CCIE-SP-LAB CCIE S/P Real Labs
VOICE-LAB CCIE VOICE Real Labs
Security-LAB CCIE Security Real Labs
640-802 Cisco Certified Network Associate
640-822 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1
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642-813 Implementing Cisco Switched Networks
642-832 Troubleshooting And Maintaing Cisco IP Networks
642-902 Implementing Cisco IP Routing
646-985 Data Center Networking Solution Sales

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2010-04-08T03:40:00.000-07:00

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2010-01-17T20:33:00.000-08:00

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2009-12-25T04:45:00.000-08:00

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2009-12-01T11:14:00.000-08:00

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2009-11-12T10:50:00.000-08:00

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1. Which command should you issue first to configure EIGRP for IP?
A. ip eigrp routing
B. router eigrp processid
C. ip eigrp autonomoussystemnumber
D. router eigrp autonomoussystemnumber
Answer: D

2. Which two statements about 6to4 tunneling are accurate? (Choose two.)
A. Prepending a reserved IPv6 code to the hexadecimal representation of 192.168.0.1 facilitates 6to4 tunneling.
B. Each 6to4 site receives a /48 prefix in a 6to4 tunnel.
C. 2002::/48 is the address range specifically assigned to 6to4.
D. Prepending 0x2002 with the IPv4 address creates an IPv6 address that is used in 6to4 tunneling.
E. 6to4 is a manual tunnel method.
Answer: B, D

3. Which statement is true about the implementation of IPv6 in an already existing IPv4 network?
A. IPv6 can be routed using the same routing protocol versions as IPv4
B. A router routing for IPv6 and IPv4 must convert IPv4 packets to IPv6 packets to route them.
C. IPv4 and IPv6 networks can be routed simultaneously.
D. Only OSPF version 3 can be utilized for routing IPv4 and IPv6.
Answer: C

read more...

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2009-11-12T10:42:00.000-08:00

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The fourth step you are going to take is enrolling your exam, which is very convenient nowadays for everyone.
The final step is to stay certified. Checks out the detailed requirements of the Cisco certification, to see which update exams are needed for higher certifications.
Don’t take the test until you’re ready. What I mean by this is that you shouldn’t consider taking a Cisco certification exam until you have real-world experience with the technology being tested. Keep it in your mind that the goal of getting a certification is to gain more knowledge.

Related Exams:
190-840 – Configuring Domino 8 Web Servers
1T6-215 – Sniffer Portable Switch Expert Analysis and Troubleshooting
e20-580 – storage management specialist exam
190-721 – IBM Lotus Notes Domino 7 Building the Infrastructure
1D0-525 – CIW v5 E Commerce Designer

CCIE 350-040 braindumps, 350-040 exam, Cisco 350-040 torrent, 350-040 study guide, 350-040 PDF, 350-040 vce, 350-040 test rapidshare

2009-10-12T09:44:00.000-07:00

(350-040) CCIE Storage Networking

Cisco 350-040 Exam - Certifysky.com

Free 350-040 Sample Questions:

1.What is TCP fast recovery?
A: It is an algorithm that uses fast retransmit when a missing segment is detected.
B: It is an algorithm that initiates slow start instead of congestion avoidance after fast retransmit sends what appears to be the missing segment.
C: It is an algorithm that starts congestion avoidance instead of slow start after fast retransmit sends what appears to be the missing segment.
D: It is an algorithm that after a new connection is established with a host on another network, initializes the congestion window to one segment and each time an ACK is received, increases the congestion window by one segment
Answer: C

2.What statement is TRUE?
A: A SPAN session can capture traffic originating from or destined for an end device, while an MDS fcanalyzer can only capture traffic originating from, or destined for, the supervisor.
B: An MDS fcanalyzer can capture traffic originating from, or destined for, an end device, while a SPAN can only capture traffic originating from, or destined for, the supervisor.
C: SPAN cannot capture traffic destined for the supervisor; the MDS fcanalyzer must be used instead.
D: SPAN can be used to determine why a port cannot autonegotiate to 2Gbps instead of 1Gbps.
E: Only when an SD port detects that it is attached to a Cisco PAA (Port Analyzer Adapter) will it use Buffer to Buffer Flow Control.
Answer: A

3.A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 1009 on an MDS. What is the correct output of the "show vsan 1009" command?
A: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
B: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
C: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:2 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
D: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
E: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
Answer: D

4.AAA(TACACS+, Radius) protocols can not be used to authenticate and/or authorize what on MDS?
A: Telnet and Console access
B: SSH
C: RBAC
D: dhchap for fabric security
E: CUP
Answer: E

5.A customer needs SAN extension for a distance of 200 kilometers for a mission-critical application. Assuming the customer owns the dark fibers between the 2 locations, what technology can provide the best reliability, performance, and scalability?
A: Single mode dark fiber with long wave GBIC/SFP
B: FCIP over dedicated leased line
C: DWDM with BLSR (bidirectional line switched ring)
D: CWDM with failover protection by application
Answer: C

6."SCSI LUN discovery" is triggered automatically when:
A: An IPS module is installed in an MDS switch
B: A CSM module is installed in an MDS switch
C: An ASM module is installed in an MDS switch
D: A 16 port FC Line card installed in an MDS switch
E: The switch has dual supervisors
Answer: A, B, C

7.When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this VSAN?
A: The VSAN is a FICON VSAN.
B: In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN.
C: QoS is enabled for the VSAN.
D: Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
E: Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
Answer: B

8.ip access-list acl1 permit ip any any ip access-list acl1 deny tcp 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 eq port telnet any ip access-list acl1 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq port telnet any ip access-list acl1 deny icmp any 10.1.1.1 ip access-list acl1 permit icmp 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 any ip access-list acl1 deny udp any any interface mgmt0 ip access-group acl1 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 Given the above IP access list configured on MDS, Which are true?
A:MDS can not telnet to host 10.0.1.1
B:Host 10.0.1.1 can telnet to MDS 10.1.1.1
C:Host 10.0.1.1 can not ping with ICMP to MDS mgmt0
D:MDS mgmt0 can not access tftp server using UDP
E:MDS mgmt 0 can ping host 10.0.1.1
Answer: B, E

9.What is a valid file type and name created when using the Performance Manger wizard to create a collections file for a switch named MDS2 ?
A: MDS2_PM.xls
B: MDS2_PM.doc
C: C9216-2_06242004.xls
D: MDS2_PM.html
E: MDS2.xml
Answer: E

10.When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this VSAN?
A: The VSAN is a FICON VSAN.
B: In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN.
C: QoS is enabled for the VSAN.
D: Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
E: Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
Answer: B

650-621 Exam,650-621 test questions,650-621 torrent,650-621 eBook,650-621 dumps,650-621 PDF,650-621 VCE,650-621 rapidshare

2009-09-23T23:43:00.000-07:00

650-621 LCSAWALAN Cisco Lifecycle Services Advanced Wireless

Cisco 650-621 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 650-621 Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following WLAN service components all occur in the prepare phase?
A. High-level Design, Proof of Concept, Technology Strategy Development
B. System Requirements Validation, WLAN wired Network Integration Assessment, Operations Readiness Assessment
C. Proposal Development, Customer Education, Service Assurance
D. Security Assessment, Security Administration, Staging Plan Development
Answer: A

2. Which service component within the prepare phase provides a technology-focused and/or business-focused demonstration of the wireless technology solution to highlight the features and benefits?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following.
A. High-Level Design Development
B. Customer Education
C. Technology Strategy Development
D. Proposal Delivery
E. Proof of Concept
Answer: B

3. The activity of identifying the customer's support model for WLAN is part of which service component in the plan phase? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Operations Readiness Assessment
B. Site Readiness assessment
C. Proposal Delivery
D. Account Planning
Answer: A

4. In the wireless design phase, which service component provides a comprehensive, implementation-ready design for the customer's wireless solution? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Business Plan
B. Staging Plan
C. Detailed Design Development
D. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
Answer: C

5. Which two service components are performed during the wireless implement phase? (Choose two.) Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following:
A. Wireless Readiness Assessment
B. Project Planning
C. Site Readiness Specification
D. Systems Acceptance Testing
E. Configuration Management
Answer: B, D

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Cisco 650-180 Exam,650-180 Dumps,650-180 Torrent,650-180 PDF Ebook,650-180 VCE download,650-180 rapidshare,650-180 practice questions

2009-09-23T23:40:00.000-07:00

650-180 SMB Solutions for Engineers (SMBEN)

Cisco 650-180 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 650-180 Sample Questions:

1. In a traditional telephony environment, the station shelf will be replaced by which of the following in an IP telephony deployment?
A. a call control server
B. a TDM trunk shelf
C. the auto-attendant application
D. a Layer 2 switch
Answer: D

2. On a network where voice communication is mission-critical to business operation, which Cisco support service product targets customers with up to 48 users?
A. Cisco SMARTnet for SBCS
B. Cisco Technical Assistance Center
C. Cisco Smart Care Service
D. Cisco Smart Foundation Service
E. SMARTnet Partner Service
Answer: A

3. If a customer insists to use a traditional approach to a phone system, which of the following configuration works normally?
A. the SPA3000 telephone adapters with an FXO gateway
B. SPA9000 Service Model with PSTN Service only plus SPA400
C. SPA9000 Service Model with VoIP Only service
D. SPA9000 Service Model with simultaneous VoIP and PSTN services
Answer: B

4. A Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) trunk is typically the voice interconnect between any business and the outside world. Which of the following dial plan scenario may require PSTN trunks for outbound calls?
A. A subnet of the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voice-mail system have direct inward dial numbers, and the remaining employees do not have direct inward dial numbers.
B. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voice-mail system have direct inward dial numbers using analog trunks.
C. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voice-mail system have direct inward dial numbers using digital interfaces.
Answer: C

5. An integral part of the Cisco Unified Communications family of products, Cisco Unified CallConnector is integrated with Cisco Unified CallManager Express to delivers easy-to-use call control and presence features that can increase productivity and enhance communications. Which two of the following answers are benefits provided by Cisco Unified CallConnector to customer communication? (Choose two)
A. Screen Pops for incoming calls
B. status of coworkers before placing a call
C. click-to-dial access only for WebEx meetings
D. Connect feature in Communications Manager Express
Answer: A, B

6. Compared with standard voice-mail systems, what is the advantage of integrated messaging?
A. provides a toolbar to see the status of coworkers
B. provides text versions of your voice-mail messages
C. eliminates the need for a live operator to answer the phone
D. forwards voice-mail messages to your email at .wav files
Answer: D

7. The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is a signaling protocol, widely used for controlling multimedia communication sessions such as voice and video calls over Internet Protocol (IP). Which three of the following are features of the SIP protocol? (Choose three)
A. assigns text-based device addresses
B. sends requests to network gateways
C. provides a secure communication path
D. sessions are initiated by end devices
Answer: A, B, D

8. In a keyswitch system, you can set up most of your phones to have a nearly identical configuration, in which:
A. All IP Phones in the system have a single unique extension number.
B. All IP Phones are able to answer any incoming PSTN call on any line.
C. PSTN calls are routed through a receptionist or automated attendant.
Answer: B

9. Refer to the following protocols, which three have something to do with a voice network? (Choose three)
A. SCCP
B. RTP
C. FXS
D. TFTP
Answer: A, B, D

10. Which one of the following feature is the most important one of the Cisco (Linksys) Small Business NSS platform to distinguish it from other NAS systems?
A. the OS resides on the chassis
B. the option for RAID 10
C. a disk-based encryption mechanism
D. one terabyte storage capacity per drive
Answer: A

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650-059	LCSARS Cisco Lifecycle Services Advanced Routing and Switching	$79.00
650-173	SBCSAM Smart Business Communication Systems for Account Managers	$79.00
650-175	SMBAM - SMB Specialization for Account Managers	$79.00
650-178	SBCSEN Smart Business Communication Systems for Engineers	$79.00
650-180	SMB Solutions for Engineers (SMBEN)	$79.00
650-251	LCSAUC Cisco Lifecycle Services Advanced IP Communications	$79.00
650-393	LCSE Cisco Lifecycle Services Express	$79.00
650-575	LCSAS Cisco Lifecycle Services Advanced Security	$79.00
650-621	LCSAWALAN Cisco Lifecycle Services Advanced Wireless	$79.00

642-446 free dumps,642-446 best exam questions,642-446 study guide,642-446 torrent,642-446 PDF download,642-446 practice test

2009-09-09T05:10:00.000-07:00

Cisco 642-446 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 642-446 Sample Questions:

1. Which three steps need to be performed on a third party SIP phone device when adding it to Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)
A. Select XML as the method to send the third party SIP phone its configuration file.
B. Add the MAC address of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to the SIP phone configuration.
C. Set the directory numbers to match the directory numbers configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. Set the digest user ID in the SIP device to match the digest user ID in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. Set the TLS user ID and password in the SIP phone to match the TLS user ID and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
F. Set the proxy address in the SIP phone to match the IP address or fully qualified domain name of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: C, E, F

2. Which two gateway configuration statements are required in order to enable Cisco Unified Communications Manager to control a T1 PRI in an MGCP gateway? (Choose two.)
A. mgcp
B. ccm-manager config
C. pri-group configuration on the controller
D. mgcp call-agent pointing to tftp server
E. isdn l3-backhaul ccm-manager on the serial interface
F. ccm-manager config server {TFTP ip_address}
Answer: B, F

3. If a service is currently deactivated, how can the service be reactivated from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability Control Center page?
A. by clicking on the radio button to the left of the service on the Control Center page
B. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Service Activation and then clicking on the radio button to the left of the service to activate it
C. by selecting Tools > Service Activation, selecting the correct server, and clicking on the radio button to the left of the service to activate it
D. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Tools, clicking on the radio button to the left of the service that needs to be activated, and then returning to the Control Center to activate the service
Answer: C

4. Which two of these media resources are available only in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. transcoding
B. audio conferencing
C. MTP
D. annunciator
E. MOH
F. voice termination
Answer: A, F

5. Which three steps are necessary in order to configure DHCP for phone support using the GUI in Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)
A. add the DHCP server IP address to the device pool
B. activate DHCP Monitor Service
C. add and configure the DHCP server
D. start the application on an external server
E. configure the DHCP subnet
F. download the DHCP server application from the plug-in page
Answer: B, C, E

6. Which two of these are characteristics of multicast music on hold? (Choose two.)
A. point-to-multipoint, two-way audio stream
B. separate audio stream for each connection
C. multiple audio streams that require multiple multicast IP addresses
D. support for all codecs that are also supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers
E. conservation of system resources and bandwidth
F. the requirement that there always be a dedicated MOH server
Answer: C, E

7. Which three determinations are possible when using the Presence feature in a Cisco Unified
Communications network? (Choose three.)
A. Determine if an IP phone has been unplugged if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified
Communications cluster as the watcher.
B. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is outside the Cisco Unified
Communications cluster of the watcher.
C. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified
Communications cluster as the watcher.
D. Determine if a set of IP phones is on hook or off hook if if the phones are in the same Cisco Unified
Communications cluster as the watcher.
E. Determine if an IP phone has been moved or the user has been changed if the phone is in the same
Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
F. Determine if an IP phone has been off hook beyond a specified period of time if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
Answer: B, C, D

8. The Ajax Corporation is designing an IP telephony network using Cisco MCS 7845 Series servers, each one capable of supporting 7500 devices. The design must meet these requirements:
(1) be cost-effective
(2) support up to 7500 phones
(3) provide a minimal level of redundancy
Which configuration will meet Ajax Corporation's needs?
A. two Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers:
1 publisher and TFTP server combined
1 primary subscriber
B. three Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers:
1 publisher and TFTP server combined
1 primary subscriber
1 backup subscriber
C. four Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers:
1 publisher
1 TFTP server
1 primary subscriber
1 backup subscriber
D. five Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers:
1 publisher
1 TFTP server
1 primary subscriber
2 backup subscribers
Answer: B

9. What is one difference between Cisco inline power and 802.3af PoE?
A. Cisco inline power should only be activated for those ports that require PoE to avoid oversubscription.
B. You must determine the total number of IP phones the switch can support with 802.3af to avoid oversubscription.
C. You must specify which set of pins the powered device is going to accept power on for 802.3af.
D. Cisco inline power provides a variable amount of power by using CDP.
Answer: B

10. Which IP phone hardening technique will prevent call signaling and media stream tampering?
A. disable GARP
B. disable PC-to-voice VLAN access
C. use MIC firmware images signed by Cisco
D. store IP phone configuration files on the SFTP server
E. deploy authentication and encryption between IP phones and Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer: E

Cisco 642-446 Cheat-Test Exams

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642-446

Implementing Cisco Unified Communications IP Telephony Part 1

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642-446 Exam Preparation from Cheat-test.com include:

Comprehensive questions with complete details
Questions accompanied by exhibits
Verified Answers Researched by Industry Experts
Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Actual Exams
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Like actual certification exams our product is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs)

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642-243 EXAM,642-243 BRAINDUMPS,642-243 STUDY GUIDE,642-243 TORRENT,642-243 PDF,642-243 EBOOK,642-243 RAPIDSHARE,642-243 TESTKING

2009-09-09T05:07:00.000-07:00

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Like actual certification exams our product is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs)

Cisco 642-243 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 642-243 Sample Questions:

1. Refer to the exhibit.

In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, the Cisco Unified ICM Script Editor provides a "Monitor Mode" that is useful in understanding how calls are being handled in real time. Given the screen capture, which two states describe the calls handled by this Call Routing Script? (Choose two.)
A. Thirty calls are currently in queue for the "Gold" Skill Group.
B. Three calls failed the Queue to Skill Group Node because no "Gold" agents were logged in.
C. Agents in the "Gold" Skill Group were immediately available for 20 calls.
D. Four calls remained in queue on the Cisco Unified IP IVR waiting for available agents and heard the prompts played by the "qmsg" script.
E. "CCM1_1" is the Media Routing Domain of the "Gold" Skill Group.
Answer: B, C

2. Drag and Drop Question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:

3. Drag and Drop Question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:

4. Drag and Drop Question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:

5. To use the Cisco Unified ICM dumplog utility to gather the Call Router's MDS log from Monday, March 10, 2008, begining at 9:30, and to ensure that you do not get binary data in the log, which command line syntax would you use?
A. dump mds /bt 09:30 /nobinary /o
B. dumplog mds /bd 03/10/2008 /09:30 /o
C. dumplog mds /bd 03/10/2008 /bt 09:30 /nobin /o
D. dumplog /bd 03/10/2008 /bt 09:30 /nobin /o
Answer: C

6. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, which three traces would you apply for a Cisco Unified Communications Manager PIM in the Cisco Unified ICM PROCMON tool? (Choose three.)
A. trace *low* /on
B. trace csta* /on
C. trace *event /on
D. trace closedcalls /on
E. trace precall /on
F. trace routing /on
Answer: B, C, E

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2009-08-14T04:23:00.000-07:00

Cheat-test 642-274 Certification Exam

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Cisco 642-274 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 642-274 Sample Questions:

1. Which is the reason that the video terminal manufacturer, models, and versions are important parts of the planning process?

A. Only a few devices can support SIP and video.
B. All video terminals can dial in to Cisco Unified MeetingPlace video meetings.
C. Cisco Unified MeetingPlace is a SIP-based solution and H.320 devices cannot be supported.
D. Some versions of H.323, SIP, and H.320 video devices cannot negotiate the mid-call escalation correctly.

Answer: D

2. You work as a network engineer for an IT company. Observe the following items carefully, which two fields can be used to customize scheduling and hide specific fields in the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Web scheduling UI form and Outlook plug-in form? (Choose two.)

A. "Customize Outlook Interface" in MeetingPlace Web Admin
B. "Customize Outlook Interface" in Application Server Admin
C. "Scheduling Details Page" in MeetingPlace Web Admin
D. "Account Basics" in Application Server Admin

Answer: B, D

3. Which is the maximum acceptable site-to-site round-trip delay WAN/LAN requirement for Cisco Unified MeetingPlace deployments?

A. 1500 ms round trip
B. 150 ms round trip
C. 150 sec round trip
D. there is no specific requirement

Answer: B

4. In the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace system, which two global video modes and settings affect all video blades? (Choose two.)

A. Standard Video up to 24 ports max with 128 kb/s~2 Mb/s per port
B. Low-End Video up to 24 ports max with 128 kb/s~384 kb/s per port
C. Desktop Video up to 48 ports max with 128 kb/s~2 Mb/s per port
D. Desktop Video up to 48 ports max with 128 kb/s~384 kb/s per port

Answer: A, D

5. Which procedure can best restore the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Application Server master database?

A. Use an FTP file transfer to manually move files and issue a restore command in the Applications Server CLI.
B. Use Telnet to access the Application Server and issue a manual restore command.
C. Use the Backup GUI in the Administration Center to do an automatic restore.
D. Use SSH to access the Application Server CLI and issue a manual restore command.

Answer: D

6. Which three are essential considerations for a dial plan in a Cisco Unified MeetingPlace solution? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Unified MeetingPlace requires at least one dial-in number.
B. Implementing dialing restrictions can affect Cisco Unified MeetingPlace functionality.
C. Calling partitions and calling search spaces can affect Cisco Unified MeetingPlace functionality.
D. Calling partitions and calling search spaces do not affect Cisco Unified MeetingPlace functionality.

Answer: A, B, C

7. How to upgrade the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Audio and Video Blades to a newer release?

A. insert CD with new software, execute file locally
B. SSH connection and transfer file to blades, then execute file
C. remote desktop connection and FTP file to blades, then execute file
D. via laptop IP connection, then execute file

Answer: D

8. A command-line interface (CLI) is a mechanism for interacting with a computer operating system or software by typing commands to perform specific tasks. Which CLI command is used to check the date and time on the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Application Server?

A. ntp_check
B. timezone
C. time
D. date

Answer: D

9. Refer to the following components, which three are deployed in a typical secured Cisco Unified MeetingPlace solution? (Choose three.)

A. antivirus on the Media Server blades
B. Cisco Security Agent on the Web Server
C. Cisco Security Agent on the Application Server
D. SSL certificates

Answer: B, C, D

10. What are required from WebEx prior to configuration on the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace side while initially configuring and testing Cisco Unified MeetingPlace with WebEx integration? (Multiple choice)

A. site name
B. password for WebEx site administration
C. partner ID
D. site ID

Answer: A, B, C, D

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2009-08-14T04:16:00.000-07:00

Cisco Exam Code: 642-545
Cisco Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis and Response System
Cheat-test Last Update: August 2009
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Cisco 642-545 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 642-545 Sample Questions:

1. Which three options are true with regard to the Cisco Security MARS global and local controller architecture? (Choose three.)

A. All local controllers events are propagated to the global controller for correlations.
B. One global controller can support multiple local controllers.
C. Each zone can have one local controller.
D. Incidents can be viewed on the global controller based on a selected local controller.

Answer: B, C, D

2. Which two alert actions can notify a user that a Cisco Security MARS rule has fired, and that an incident has been logged? (Choose two.)

A. syslog
B. Short Message Service
C. OPSEC-LEA (clear and encrypted)
D. XML notification

Answer: B, D

3. Which option is correct about the case management feature of Cisco Security MARS?

A. It is used in conjunction with the Cisco Security MARS incident escalation feature for incident reporting.
B. It is used to capture, combine, and preserve user-selected Cisco Security MARS data within a specialized report.
C. It is used to automatically collect and save information on incidents, sessions, queries, and reports dynamically without user interventions.
D. It is used to very quickly evaluate the state of the network.

Answer: B

4. Which two statements accurately describe the Cisco Security MARS rules? (Choose two)

A. Drop rules are treated as global rules so it will automatically propagate to the Cisco Security MARS global controller.
B. Predefined system rules are treated as global rules. When an incident is fired by a system rule on the Cisco Security MARS local controller, the system rule propagates to the Cisco Security MARS global controller.
C. It is not possible to edit the global rules created on the Cisco Security MARS global controller from the Cisco Security MARS local controller.
D. Rules can be created on both the Cisco Security MARS global controller and the Cisco Security MARS local controllers. Rules on the Cisco Security MARS global controller will propagate down to the Cisco Security MARS local controllers.

Answer: B, D

5. The Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System (Cisco Security MARS) is an appliance-based, all-inclusive solution that provides unmatched insight and control of your existing security deployment. Which three items are correct with regard to Cisco Security MARS rules? (Choose three.)

A. There are three types of rules.
B. Rules can be deleted.
C. Rules can be created using a query.
D. Rules trigger incidents.

Answer: A, C, D

6. According to the exhibit displayed in the screen, the Local Controller-Global Controller state is active but the communications do not appear to work. Which is the most likely cause of this situation?

A. The Local Controller and Global Controller port 80 traffic is being blocked by a firewall.
B. This issue results from a time synchronization mismatch.
C. You forgot to click Activate for Global Controller-based topological changes to be pushed to the Local Controller.
D. This issue results from a backlog of data that is caused by a temporary disconnect of the Local Controller and Global Controller.

Answer: D

7. Study the exhibit carefully. Which icon can be chosen to generate the access rules information displayed toward the bottom of the screen?

A. Incident Vector icon
B. Security Manager Policy Table Lookup icon
C. ISR Device Manager Policy icon
D. Raw Events icon

Answer: B

8. Which additional steps should you take after manually adding the BR-FW-1 device shown in the MARS GUI screen?

A. Click "Submit" to enable the device.
B. Click "Submit" to test access to the device, When access is successful. Click "Activate" to activate the device.
C. Click "Activate" to activate the device, then click "Submit" to save the device configuration.
D. Click "Discover" to initiate manual discovery. When discovery is completed, click "Submit", then "Activate."

Answer: D

9. Which three items about the Query displayed on the MARS GUI screen are correct? (Choose three.)

A. Query will match any source IP address.
B. Query will only match a destination IP address of 10.1.1.1 OR 10.1.1.25.
C. Query will only match a destination IP address range from 10.1.1.1 to 10.1.1.25.
D. Query will only match any services using the TCP-highPort OR UDP-highPort services groups.

Answer: A, C, D

10. Which three reporting devices could be added to the MARS appliance by use of the "Add SW security apps on new host?" (Choose three.)

A. Cisco ACS
B. FWSM
C. SNORT
D. generic web server

Answer: A, C, D

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2009-08-14T04:06:00.000-07:00

Cisco 642-515 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 642-515 Sample Questions:

1. The following exhibit shows a Cisco ASA security appliance configured to participate in a VPN cluster. According to the exhibit, to which value will you set the priority to increase the chances of this Cisco ASA security appliance becoming the cluster master?

A. 100
B. 0
C. 10
D. 1
Answer: C

2. Tom works as a network administrator for the CISCO company. The primary adaptive security appliance in an active/standby failover configuration failed, so the secondary adaptive security appliance was automatically activated. Tom then fixed the problem. Now he would like to restore the primary to active status. Which one of the following commands can reactivate the primary adaptive security appliance and restore it to active status while issued on the primary adaptive security appliance?
A. failover reset
B. failover primary active
C. failover active
D. failover exec standby
Answer: C

3. Which two statements are true about multiple context mode? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple context mode does not support IPS, IPsec, and SSL VPNs, or dynamic routing protocols.
B. Multiple context mode enables you to create multiple independent virtual firewalls with their own security policies and interfaces.
C. Multiple context mode enables you to add to the security appliance a hardware module that supports up to four independent virtual firewalls.
D. When you convert from single mode to multiple mode, the security appliance automatically adds an entry for the admin context to the system configuration with the name "admin."
Answer: B, D

4. Which three statements correctly describe protocol inspection on the Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance? (Choose three.)
A. For the security appliance to inspect packets for signs of malicious application misuse, you must enable advanced (application layer) protocol inspection.
B. If you want to enable inspection globally for a protocol that is not inspected by default or if you want to globally disable inspection for a protocol, you can edit the default global policy.
C. The protocol inspection feature of the security appliance securely opens and closes negotiated ports and IP addresses for legitimate clientserver connections through the security appliance.
D. If inspection for a protocol is not enabled, traffic for that protocol may be blocked.
Answer: B, C, D

5. Study the following exhibit carefully. You work as the network administrator of a corporate Cisco ASA security appliance with a Cisco ASA AIPSSM. You are asked to use the AIPSSM to protect corporate DMZ web servers. The AIPSSM has been configured, and a service policy has been configured to identify the traffic to be passed to the AIPSSM.
On which two interfaces would application of the service policy for the AIPSSM be most effective while causing the least amount of impact to Cisco ASA security appliance performance? (Choose two.)

A. Internet interface
B. dmz interface
C. globally on all interfaces
D. outside interface
Answer: B, D

6. Multimedia applications transmit requests on TCP, get responses on UDP or TCP, use dynamic ports, and use the same port for source and destination, so they can pose challenges to a firewall. Which three items are true about how the Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance handles multimedia applications? (Choose three.)
A. It dynamically opens and closes UDP ports for secure multimedia connections, so you do not need to open a large range of ports.
B. It supports SIP with NAT but not with PAT.
C. It supports multimedia with or without NAT.
D. It supports RTSP, H.323, Skinny, and CTIQBE.
Answer: A, C, D

7. Which two options are correct about the impacts of this configuration? (Choose two.)
classmap INBOUND_HTTP_TRAFFIC
match accesslist TOINSIDEHOST
classmap OUTBOUND_HTTP_TRAFFIC match accesslist TOOUTSIDEHOST policymap MYPOLICY
class INBOUND_HTTP_TRAFFIC
inspect http
set connection connmax 100
policymap MYOTHERPOLICY
class OUTBOUND_HTTP_TRAFFIC
inspect http
servicepolicy MYOTHERPOLICY interface inside servicepolicy MYPOLICY interface outside
A. Traffic that matches access control list TOINSIDEHOST is subject to HTTP inspection and maximum connection limits.
B. Traffic that enters the security appliance through the inside interface is subject to HTTP inspection.
C. Traffic that enters the security appliance through the outside interface and matches access control list TOINSIDEHOST is subject to HTTP inspection and maximum connection limits.
D. Traffic that enters the security appliance through the inside interface and matches access control list TOOUTSIDEHOST is subject to HTTP inspection.
Answer: C, D

8. Refer to the exhibit. You have configured a Layer 7 policy map to match the size of HTTP header fields that are traversing the network. Based on this configuration, will HTTP headers that are greater than 200 bytes be logged?

A. No, because the reset action for headers greater than 100 bytes would be the first match.
B. Yes, because the log action for headers greater than 200 bytes would be the last match.
C. Yes, because the reset action for headers greater than 100 bytes and the log action for headers greater than 200 bytes would both be applied.
D. No, because reset or log actions are a part of the service policy and the Layer 7 policy map.
Answer: A

9. What is the reason that you want to configure VLANs on a security appliance interface?
A. for use in conjunction with devicelevel failover to increase the reliability of your security appliance
B. for use in transparent firewall mode, where only VLAN interfaces are used
C. to increase the number of interfaces available to the network without adding additional physical interfaces or security appliances
D. for use in multiple context mode, where you can map only VLAN interfaces to contexts
Answer: C

10. You work as a network security administrator for your company. Now, you are asked to configure the corporate Cisco ASA security appliance to take the following steps on its outside interface:
rate limit all IP traffic from telecommuting system engineers to the insidehost
drop all HTTP requests from the Internet to the web server that have a body length greater than 1000 bytes
prevent users on network 192.168.6.0/24 from using the FTP PUT command to store .exe files on the FTP server
In order to achieve this objective, which set of Modular Policy Framework components will be included?

A. one Layer 7 class map, two Layer 7 policy maps, three Layer 3/4 class maps, one Layer 3/4 policy map
B. three Layer 7 policy maps, one Layer 3/4 class map, one Layer 3/4 policy map
C. one Layer 7 class map, one Layer 7 policy map, three Layer 3/4 class maps, one Layer 3/4 policy map
D. two Layer 7 class maps, one Layer 7 policy map, three Layer 3/4 class maps, one Layer 3/4 policy map
Answer: A

11. Which one of the following commands can provide detailed information about the crypto map configurations of a Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance?
A. show ipsec sa
B. show crypto map
C. show run ipsec sa
D. show run crypto map
Answer: D

12. Cisco ASA 5500 Series Adaptive Security Appliances are easytodeploy solutions that integrate worldclass firewall, Unified Communications (voice/video) security, SSL and IPsec VPN, intrusion prevention (IPS), and content security services in a flexible, modular product family. You are asked to configure a Cisco ASA 5505 Adaptive Security Appliance as an Easy VPN hardware client. In the process of configuration, you defined a list of backup servers for the security appliance to use. After several hours of being connected to the primary VPN server, the security appliance fails. You notice that your Easy VPN hardware client has now connected to a backup server that is not defined within the configuration of the client. Where did your Easy VPN hardware client get this backup server?

A. The connection profile that was configured on the primary VPN server was pushed to your Easy VPN hardware client and overwrote the list of backup servers that you had configured.
B. The group policy that was configured on the primary VPN server was pushed to your Easy VPN client and overwrote the list of backup servers that you had configured.
C. The backup servers that you listed were not configured as VPN servers, so the Easy VPN hardware client used the list of backup servers retrieved from the primary server.
D. The backup servers that you listed were no longer available, so the Easy VPN hardware client used the list of backup servers that it retrieved from the primary server.
Answer: B

13. Which three features can the Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance support? (Choose three.)
A. BGP dynamic routing
B. 802.1Q VLANs
C. OSPF dynamic routing
D. static routes
Answer: B, C, D

14. You are the network administrator for your company. Study the exhibit carefully. You are responsible for a Cisco ASA security appliance configured with a local CA. According to the exhibit below, what is the reason that the user student1 will use this password?

A. retrieval of the Cisco ASA security appliance identity certificate
B. retrieval of the digital certificate from the local CA on the Cisco ASA security appliance
C. the initial authentication to the SSL VPN server
D. authentication to the SSL VPN server
Answer: B

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2009-08-05T11:41:00.000-07:00

Cisco Certification Jobs are available all over the world as long as network professionals are always in demand. Having a Cisco Certification will give you a lot of advantages and benefits and will open up big opportunities to you. Cisco Certification Salary varies depending on the Cisco Certification you have, on job position and on location. According to TCPmag.com average Cisco Certification Salary for a Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) position in United States varies from 72,880$ in Midwest (includes Illinois, Kansas, Michigan and other states) to 79,343$ in Northeast (includes Connecticut, Massachusetts, New York, etc.).

The highest Cisco Certification Salary for a Cisco Certified Network Professional (CCNP) in US is 94,117$, in South. The lowest Cisco Certification Salary for CCNP certified specialist is 77,340$ in Midwest. The highest Cisco Certification Salary earn Cisco Certified Internetwork Experts, who can make from 102,750$ in Midwest to 122,933$ in South.

According to the Global Knowledge market research organization, Cisco Certification Salary is among the highest in Technology Industry. For example, a Voice over IP Expert who has a CCVP Cisco Certificate has an average annual Cisco Certification Salary of over $100,000. This Cisco Certification Salary places on the second position in the top. On the third position, with an average annual Cisco Certification Salary of over $95,000 are CCIE Routing and switching jobs. Other Cisco Certification Salary included in this top is Cisco Advanced Wireless LAN Design and Cisco's LCCVP with an average annual Cisco Certification Salary of over $87,000.

According to internetworking salary survey statistics, Cisco Certification Salaries are evidently increasing from year to year for all job positions, from entry-level Cisco Certification Salary to expert-level Cisco Certification Salary. For example the average Cisco Certification Salary for employees who held a CCNA certificate was $60,000 in 2004 and now that number ascended to a little more than $76,000. Cisco Experts are also favored. The average Cisco Certification Salary for a CCIE expert is up to $116,000, comparing to $102,000 a few years ago.

A major impact on Cisco Certification Salary has the working experience in IT field. According to the same source, Cisco certified individuals with more than 10 years of experience earn an average Cisco Certification Salary of $78,755. It is noticeable that those who have 2-3 years of experience earn a lower Cisco Certification Salary than those with less than one year of experience. This may be explained by the fact that now employers appear to be willing to pay more for Cisco Networking specialists, which is reflected in the Cisco Certification Salary of those who were hired within the last year.

International Cisco Certification Salary obviously differs depending on location. For example the highest average Cisco Certification Salary is paid in Great Britain and is about $69,401. The lowest Cisco Certification Salary is paid in India, with an average annual salary of $14,518.

One of the influencing factors of the much lower Cisco Certification salary in India, as compared to other countries, is the low rate of Professional and Expert level certification holders. Respondents from all surveyed countries so far, have reported considerable salary increases over the last year.

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2009-08-05T11:36:00.000-07:00

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2009-07-29T00:08:00.000-07:00

Catalyst Does Browser Management

Network switching hub

As a network manager, you already know that faster network switches will provide a better, more responsive experience for your Web browser. But what you might not know is that a browser can also improve your switching experience -- with a little help from Cisco's latest line of network switching hubs. Ideally suited as workgroup segment or edge switches, Cisco's Catalyst 2900 Series XL products, including the Catalyst 2916M XL that I tested, offer a strong solution for sites looking for a midrange feature set.

Although it offers extras over competing units from Bay Networks and 3Com, the Catalyst currently lacks key features demanded by enterprise customers.

Like most new network switches, the 2916M XL has only basic expansion capabilities. However, Cisco expects to add more expansion accessories down the line.

The Catalyst 2916M XL is a 16-port 10/100Mbps Fast Ethernet switch that sports a 3.2 Gigabit Ethernet switching fabric and supports as many as 2,048 Media Access Control addresses, making it ideal as a segment switch. The unit also has two expansion bays that support either a four-port 100Base-TX or a two-port 100Base-FX module. Cisco expects to add other modules, including a Gigabit Ethernet module, and other feature upgrades later this year.

Browser-based managementM
The feature I found to be most useful is the 2916M XL's built-in Web server, which provides network administrators with browser-based access to virtually every aspect of switch management. I was pretty impressed with this capability, which allowed me to perform quick-and-dirty remote management tasks, such as viewing port and unit statistics or configuring other unit settings.

The Catalyst's Web-based management is indeed powerful. For example, I was able to send Cisco IOS (the OS embedded on the unit) commands to the Catalyst via my Web browser. I also performed browser-based management from both Netscape's Communicator and Microsoft's Internet Explorer.

However, I did run into one problem with this feature. When connecting to the unit through a proxy server, I was able to view the unit's configuration and statistics but was unable to set configuration parameters. So if you're using a proxy server, you'll want to exclude the IP addresses of Catalyst units from your proxy server's cache table.

Some speed boosts
Although the 2916M XL does not offer a separate data cascade for combining multiple units into a single stack, the product does support a Fast EtherChannel feature, which helps to achieve faster speed uplinks between units or high-speed load balancing to multiple network interface cards on a single server. With Fast EtherChannel, I was able to combine or aggregate as many as four 100Base-TX ports into a single data channel, offering a 400Mbps data cascade (800Mbps in full-duplex mode). The 2916M XL supports as many as four separate Fast EtherChannel configurations operating concurrently.

One other highlight is the 2916M XL's 10/100Mbps, half/full-duplex autonegotiation feature. Overall, I found that the autonegotiation feature worked well. But the latency associated with determining a node's speed and duplex rating could cause minor problems if you plan to connect a client directly to the 2916M XL.

Overall, the Catalyst 2916M XL offers extras that differentiate it from competing switching hubs, but it could use some expansion features better suited for enterprise use. It lacks Layer 3 switching capabilities and its virtual LAN (VLAN) support is limited to one VLAN, although Cisco plans to add more VLAN support this summer. But if these enhancements aren't a priority for you, the 2916M XL is a solid edge or segment switch.

Last Updated ( Sunday, 08 March 2009 )

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Cisco systems, cisco vpn client, cisco routers

2009-07-29T00:05:00.000-07:00

Cisco Catalyst 1900 Smoothes Path For Sites Migrating From Hubs


Written by Wendell E. Jaynes
Sunday, 08 March 2009

Network hardware

Designed for enterprise branch offices that have 100 nodes or less, the Enterprise Edition of Catalyst 1900 from Cisco Systems, with its third generation ASIC and smaller footprint, solves the needs of small to medium-size businesses looking to migrate from a hub-centric environment.

Simple migration
The Catalyst 1900 allows enterprises to migrate from 10Base-T hubs to a switched architecture supporting 10Base-T and 100Base-TX with strong management support (through Cisco's Internetworking OS, CiscoWorks, and CiscoView) and RMON capabilities.

The switch I tested is one of four belonging to the Catalyst switch family. In our Feb. 24 issue, we reviewed Cisco's Catalyst 2820. (See Networking Product Reviews, page N/2.)

The Catalyst 1900 is on the lowest-end of this managed-switch product line. It has 24 10Base-T ports with two 100Base-TX ports (there is a lower-end model of the Catalyst 1900 that has 12 instead of 24 10Base-T ports) and an AUI port on the back of the unit.

The two 100Base-TX ports primarily are used for connecting the switch to servers or a high-speed backbone. The 100Base-TX ports support bandwidth aggregation as fast as 400Mbps for connection to a server or other switches or routers.

All of the ports on the switch have full-duplex support -- effectively doubling available bandwidth -- and a feature called CollisionFree, which Cisco officials say reduces packet collisions. It also supports cut-through or store-and-forward switching methods.

Multiprotocol support
The Catalyst 1900 has three intriguing features. It supports virtual LANs, or VLANs, has no per-port Media Access Control (MAC) address limitations (it supports a maximum of 1,024 MAC addresses), and supports Ciscos Group Management Protocol (CGMP). Cisco officials said CGMP will allow the switch to selectively forward routed IP multicast traffic to multimedia nodes to reduce network congestion.

I found this intriguing but was unable to test the claim because I could not generate the type of bandwidth saturation needed. However, CGMP is the kind of feature that is a must for those network managers concerned with multicast video tying up network bandwidth.

The switch also has a per-port restriction of broadcast storms to reduce impact on the overall switch and network performance. The 1900 supports 1,024 VLANs with Ciscos InterSwitch Link trunking on the 100Base-T ports and as many as 64 ATM emulated LANs and 64 VLANs with separate spanning trees per VLAN.

I was impressed by the breadth of documentation that came with the product. The documentation included two manuals (one for installation and configuration and the other for software on the switch) and a CD-ROM that contained all of the configuration information that I ever could have wanted on the 1900.

Competing product
I think the Catalyst 1900 is attractively priced at $99 per port. The Catalyst's closest competitor is 3Com's SuperStack II Switch 320, which was just released late last month.

The 320 is either a desktop switch or a segment switch. In desktopswitch mode the 320 supports 13 10Base-T ports; as a segment switch it has 1410Base-T ports, two of which are 100Base-TX.

The list price of the 320 is $1,395, which comes to $99 per port; this makes it a direct competitor to the 12-port 1900. But the SuperStack II 320 only supports 750 MAC addresses and is unmanaged.

RMON support lags
I was surprised that the Catalyst 1900 only supports four RMON groups yet doesn't support RMON 2. (It can support all nine groups through a Switch Probe Analyzer). It also has support for Telnet and out-of-band management with multilevel security support on the console.

A future release of the 1900 will support HTML management.

On the back of the 1900 was a port for Cisco's redundant power supply, or RPS, optional module. The RPS module has the capability of supporting the switch in the case of failure of the primary power supply.

Solid gigabit backplane
If Cisco's goal is to drive hub replacement with this product, I would have to say that they did an excellent job. This switch has a more than adequate Gigabit backplane and supports 1,024 VLANs and 1,024 MAC addresses. It uses a shared-memory architecture with a 3MB packet buffer vs. a shared port architecture to further reduce packet loss.

Overall, the Catalyst 1900 is another solid product from Cisco that won't let you down if you are looking to move from a hub-based environment.

Cheat-test > Cisco Exams > CCNP

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2009-07-19T11:35:00.000-07:00

Cheat-test > Cisco Exams > CCNP

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CCNA salary, CCNA jobs, CCNA certification test questions, free ccna training

2009-07-15T10:47:00.000-07:00

Certification Salary Survey Results

This table shows the breakdown of salaries based on the first two certifications entered by a respondent.

The first certification entered is listed in the "Cert1" column with any second certifications listed in the "Cert2" column.
For certifications with no second cert listed, or for those who did not enter a salary, you will find an entry of "--".
The amounts in bold represent the average salary for Cert1, regardless of the presence of a second certification.

To interpret the results look at the Brainbench Cert listed below. The average salary for all those with a Brainbench cert as their first selection, regardless of any additional certs, is $36,176.92. However, one person also had a A+ cert in addition to the Brainbench cert. They earned $30,000. 11 people had only a Brainbench cert with no other certs and averaged $38,027.27.

Cert1	Cert2	Average Salary	# of Responses
Adobe - ACTP		$20,000.00	1
	Brainbench Cert	$20,000.00	1

Brainbench Cert		$36,176.92	14
	--	$38,027.27	11
	Brainbench Cert	--	1
	CompTIA - A+	$30,000.00	1
	CompTIA - Network+	$22,000.00	1

Cisco - CCDA		$28,000.00	2
	Cisco - CCDP	$20,000.00	1
	Cisco - CCNA	$36,000.00	1

Cisco - CCIE		$91,333.33	6
	--	$100,000.00	3
	Cisco - CCDP	$122,000.00	1
	Microsoft - MCSE	--	1
	Cisco - CCIP	$52,000.00	1

Cisco - CCNA		$42,848.57	57
	--	$29,809.09	17
	Cisco - CCDA	$43,746.67	4
	Cisco - CCNA	$92,000.00	1
	Cisco - CCNP	$46,350.00	4
	CompTIA - A+	$46,380.00	5
	CompTIA - Network+	$28,500.00	2
	Microsoft - MCAD	--	1
	Microsoft - MCDBA	$57,000.00	2
	Microsoft - MCP	--	1
	Microsoft - MCSA	$25,000.00	1
	Microsoft - MCSE	$52,625.00	12
	Novell - CNA	$36,300.00	3
	Novell - CNE	$48,000.00	1
	GIAC	$50,000.00	3

Cisco - CCNP		$64,769.23	14
	--	$61,300.00	4
	Cisco - CCDP	$72,000.00	2
	Cisco - CCNA	$91,800.00	2
	CompTIA - A+	$49,333.33	3
	Microsoft - MCSE	$65,000.00	1
	Novell - CNE	$73,000.00	1
	CISSP	$75,000.00	1

CISSP		$70,000.00	4
	--	$70,000.00	2
	Microsoft - MCSE	$70,000.00	2

CIW Associate		--	1
	CIW Professional	--	1

CIW Master Enterprise Developer		$17,000.00	2
	--	$17,000.00	2

CIW Master Web Site Designer		$60,000.00	3
	--	$60,000.00	3

CIW Security Analyst		$83,500.00	4
	--	$110,000.00	2
	Cisco - CCNA	$57,000.00	2

CompTIA - A+		$33,780.08	131
	--	$29,794.91	69
	Brainbench Cert	$26,000.00	1
	Cisco - CCNA	$38,250.00	3
	CompTIA - i-Net+	$28,000.00	1
	CompTIA - Network+	$32,796.84	23
	CompTIA - Server+	$35,980.00	4
	IBM Certification	$43,500.00	2
	Microsoft - MCP	$36,337.50	13
	Microsoft - MCSA	$30,000.00	1
	Microsoft - MCSE	$55,071.43	9
	Microsoft - MCT	$30,900.00	1
	Novell - CNA	$45,666.67	3
	Linux LPIC	$41,558.00	1

CompTIA - eBiz+		$36,900.00	1
	Microsoft - MOUS	$36,900.00	1

CompTIA - i-Net+		$32,333.33	3
	--	$28,000.00	1
	CompTIA - A+	$35,000.00	1
	CIW Associate	$34,000.00	1

CompTIA - Network+		$38,653.85	14
	--	$34,900.00	5
	CompTIA - A+	$25,000.00	1
	CompTIA - i-Net+	$37,500.00	2
	Microsoft - MCP	$29,000.00	3
	Microsoft - MCSE	$25,000.00	1
	Novell - CNA	$95,000.00	1
	Oracle - OCM	$50,000.00	1

IBM Certification		$60,357.14	8
	--	$55,916.67	6
	Brainbench Cert	$87,000.00	2

Lotus - CLP		$45,000.00	6
	--	$38,333.33	5
	Sun - SCJP	$65,000.00	1

Microsoft - MCAD		$179,500.00	4
	--	--	2
	Check Point - CCQE	$179,500.00	1
	Novell - MCNE	--	1

Microsoft - MCP		$41,398.84	35
	--	$41,189.74	25
	Brainbench Cert	$40,000.00	1
	Cisco - CCNA	$35,000.00	2
	CompTIA - A+	$37,500.00	3
	CompTIA - Network+	$50,000.00	1
	Microsoft - MCSA	$31,000.00	1
	Novell - CNA	$55,000.00	1
	Microsoft - MCSD	$50,000.00	1

Microsoft - MCSA		$38,250.00	4
	--	$27,666.67	3
	Microsoft - MCSE	$70,000.00	1

Microsoft - MCSD		$45,000.00	3
	Sun - SCJP	$60,000.00	1
	Microsoft - MCSD	$30,000.00	1
	Sun - SCJD	--	1

Microsoft - MCSE		$43,122.50	64
	--	$41,477.27	34
	Brainbench Cert	$80,000.00	1
	Cisco - CCNA	$35,500.00	5
	CompTIA - A+	$46,600.00	5
	GSE	$22,000.00	1
	Microsoft - MCDBA	$15,500.00	1
	Microsoft - MCP	$43,600.00	5
	Microsoft - MCSA	$43,104.17	6
	Microsoft - MCT	$51,000.00	1
	Novell - CNA	$66,000.00	1
	Oracle OCP	--	1
	Sun - SCJP	$40,000.00	1
	Novell - CNE	$50,000.00	1
	Check Point - CCSE	$67,500.00	1

Microsoft - MOUS		$48,600.00	11
	--	$51,320.00	9
	Brainbench Cert	$35,000.00	1
	Microsoft - MCSD	--	1

Novell - CNA		$37,333.33	7
	--	$34,000.00	3
	CompTIA - A+	--	1
	Microsoft - MCP	$30,000.00	1
	Microsoft - MOUS	$47,000.00	1
	Oracle - OCM	$45,000.00	1

Novell - CNE		$63,500.00	4
	CompTIA - A+	$49,500.00	2
	Microsoft - MCP	$100,000.00	1
	Novell - MCNE	$55,000.00	1

Oracle OCP		$80,000.00	3
	--	$80,000.00	2
	Microsoft - MCSE	--	1

Sun - SCJD		$69,666.67	3
	--	$67,000.00	1
	Suin - SCJP	$70,000.00	1
	Sun - SCJP	$72,000.00	1

Sun - SCJP		$60,400.00	10
	--	$60,000.00	4
	Cisco - CCNA	--	1
	Oracle OCP	$56,000.00	2
	Sun - SCJD	$70,000.00	2
	Macromedia Certification	--

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2009-07-10T11:58:00.000-07:00

352-001 Exam Preparation from Cheat-test.com include:

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Cisco 352-001 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 352-001 Sample Questions:

Q: 1 Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. single run
B. multi-homed
C. stub domain EBGP
D. direct BGP peering
Answer: B

Q: 2 NetFlow provides valuable information about network users and applications, peak usage times, and traffic routing. Which function is of NetFlow?
A. monitor configuration changes
B. monitor CPU utilization
C. monitor link utilization
D. generate traps for failure conditions
Answer: C

Q: 3 The XYI company is deploying OSPF on a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay network. The remote sites needn't to communicate with each other and there are a relatively small number of sites (scaling is not a concern).
How to configure OSPF for this topology in order to minimize the additional routing information
injected into the network and keep the configuration size and complexity to a minimum?
A. Configure the link as OSPF nonbroadcast and manually configure each of the remote sites as a neighbor.
B. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure the hub router to always be the designated router.
C. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure a mesh group towards the remote routers.
D. Configure the link at the hub router as OSPF point-to-multipoint and at the remote routers as OSPF point-to-point.
Answer: B

Q: 4 What is high availability?
A. redundant infrastructure
B. clustering of computer systems
C. reduced MTBF
D. continuous operation of computing systems
Answer: D

Q: 5 What is the way that an OSPF ABR uses to prevent summary route information from being readvertised from an area into the network core (Area 0)?
A. It advertises only inter-area summaries to the backbone.
B. It uses poison reverse and split horizon.
C. It only sends locally originated summaries to the backbone.
D. It compares the area number on the summary LSA to the local area.
Answer: C

Q: 6 Connecting an IS-IS router to four links and redistributing 75 routes from RIP.
How many LSPs will be originated by this router?
A. one LSP: containing the router information, internal routes, and external routes
B. six LSPs: one for each link, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
C. two LSPs: one containing router information and internal routes and one containing external routes
D. three LSPs: one containing all links, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
Answer: A

Q: 7 According to the network in this exhibit, traffic directed towards 10.1.5.1 arrives at XYI-R4. Which path will the traffic take from here?
A. It will take XYI-R2.
B. It will not take any path. XYI-R4 will drop the traffic.
C. It will take XYI-R3.
D. It will load share between XYI-R2 and XYI-R3.
Answer: A

Q: 8 You are the Cisco Network Designer in cheat-test.com. Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
Answer: B, D

Q: 9 The IGP next-hop reachability for a BGP route is lost but a default route is available.
Assuming that BGP connectivity is maintained, what will happen to the BGP route?
A. It will be put in a hold-down state by BGP until the next hop has been updated.
B. It will be removed from the BGP table.
C. It will be considered a valid route.
D. It will be considered invalid for traffic forwarding.
Answer: C

Q: 10 In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to perform EIGRP on all interfaces. All interface bandwidths are set to 1000, and the delays are configured as displayed. In the topology table at Router XYI-RC, you see only one path towards 10.1.1.0/24.
Why Router XYI-RC only has one path in its topology table?

A. Router XYI-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router XYI-RC due to split horizon.
B. Router XYI-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router XYI-RC because Router XYI-RC is its feasible successor.
C. Router XYI-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router XYI-RC due to split horizon.
D. Router XYI-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router XYI-RC because Router XYI-RC is its feasible successor.
Answer: C

Free Cheat-test CCIE 350-050 Practice Questions

2009-07-10T11:52:00.000-07:00

Cheat-test.com 350-050 Exam Prep:

Free 350-050 Sample Questions:

Q: 1 Which two options are correct according to debug output presented in the following exhibit ? (Choose two.)

A. The wireless client uses a static IP address, so "0.0.0.0 START (0)" can be found in the logs.
B. The wireless client has been successfully authenticated. Reauthentication is set to occur on an extremely aggressive schedule (every five seconds).
C. The wireless client "hangs" in probes (does not proceed with 802.11 authentication and association). It is likely that the "encryption" or "key-management" advertised in the probe response does not match.
D. Since the AP receives a probe request from the wireless client, the Access Point Functions state for the machine changes from "Idle" to "Probe."
Answer: C, D

Q: 2 Which two statements correctly describe RTS/CTS? (Choose two.)
A. When the transmitted packet is equal to or larger than the RTS threshold, an RTS packet is sent. The destination node must respond with a CTS packet before the originator can send the real data packet.
B. Since the introduction of EDCA (WMM and 802.11e), the RTS/CTS sequence has been rendered
unnecessary.
C. 802.11d replaced the RTS/CTS sequence with CTS to Self.
D. The RTS and CTS are small and, if lost in a collision, they can be retried more quickly and with less overhead than if the whole packet must be retried.
Answer: A, D

Q: 3 The following message can be seen on a Cisco WCS:
AP 'floor-1-lobby', interface '802.11b/g' on Controller '10.1.1.1'. Noise threshold violated.
There is also a correlation between the occurrence of the message and user complaints. Which action should you take?
A. Check the logs for rogues in the area, then turn on rogue mitigation.
B. Seek out the source of the noise with a spectrum analyzer.
C. Manually increase the power of the AP to overcome the interference.
D. Increase the interference threshold from the default 10%.
Answer: B

Q: 4 Study the following situations carefully, then answer my question.
Wireless client (CB21) configured for SSID "CCIE-2"; IP address "dhcp".
Configure standalone authonomous AP with three SSIDs and three data VLANs plus the native VLAN.
AAA server IP ranges:
VLAN-2:10.20.1.1.100-10.20.1.128
VLAN-3:10.30.1.1.100-10.30.1.128
VLAN-4:10.40.1.1.100-10.40.1.128
Question:
The user wants to get an IP address from VLAN-2 which is mapped to the SSID CCIE-2 the client is associating. Why does this wireless client get a wrong IP address?

A. LEAP authentication fails due to wrong password or unknown username, therefore the wireless-client is mapped to the default VLAN.
B. The RADIUS server is not reachable from the AP, therefore the wireless client is mapped to the default VLAN.
C. LEAP needs "network-eap" on the SSID. You must not configure "open eap"

D. The RADIUS server assigned VLAN-4 during authentication/authorization process.
Answer: D

Q: 5 It is suggested that you prime or stage your lightweight access points in a convenient location, rather that after they have been installed in locations that may be difficult to reach.
Which three items can be configured by using the controller CLI, controller GUI, or Cisco WCS while priming a lightweight AP prior to deployment? (Choose three.)
A. to configure the lightweight access point with primary, secondary, and tertiary controller names
B. to configure the Controller Mobility Group name, if the lightweight access point is in a Controller Mobility Group
C. to configure the access-point-specific LED blink sequence
D. to configure the access-point-specific 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g network settings
Answer: A, B, D

Q: 6 How to describe the radiation pattern of patch and Yagi antennas when viewed from the side (H-plane)?
A. the patch patterns are egg-shaped, the Yagi patterns are conical
B. the patch patterns are doughnut-shaped, the Yagi patterns are conical
C. the patch patterns are conical, the Yagi patterns are doughnut-shaped
D. the patch patterns are conical, the Yagi patterns are egg-shaped
Answer: A

Q: 7 Which description concerning wireless voice traffic is correct?
A. Voice traffic is more latency-sensitive.
B. Wireless voice traffic must be on a dedicated channel apart from wireless data.
C. Wireless voice devices cannot share APs with wireless data NIC cards.
D. 1Mb/s and 2Mb/s data rates are required for the phones, but not for the wireless data traffic.
Answer: A

Q: 8 Observe the following statements, which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution Management over Wireless feature?
A. Read-write access is not available; only read-only access is supported.
B. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), not nonsecure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP to which the client is associated.
Answer: C

Q: 9 Observe the following options carefully, which functionality, as defined by IEEE 802.11e, does WWM certify as part of the tests for QoS done by the WiFi Alliance?
A. EDCA
B. HCCA
C. Direct Link Setup
D. S-APSD
Answer: A

Q: 10 Lightweight Access Point Protocol or LWAPP is the name of a protocol that can control multiple Wi-Fi wireless access points at once. How does the Cisco WCS know what has happened in an LWAPP system when an AP's interface goes down and then comes up again?
A. The Cisco WCS polls the APs and when the AP is unreachable, reports "Max retransmissions reached on AP ".
B. The AP sends a linkDown then linkUp trap to the Cisco WCS; these are two of the six traps defined in RFC 1215, A Convention for Defining Traps for use with the SNMP.
C. The AP cannot send a linkDown trap, as per RFC 1215, because the link is down; when the link comes back up, the AP sends a linkup trap to the Cisco WLC, which then forwards the trap to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC sends a trap to the Cisco WCS when it detects that an AP is down.
Answer: D

Q: 11 You work as a network engineer .If the WLAN interfaces configured on the different controllers are on different IP subnets (Layer 3 inter-controller roaming), can you telle me what will happen when a client roams from one controller (controller A) to a new controller (controller B)?
A. Controller A will mark the client's entry in its client database as an anchor, controller B will not update its client database because of the anchored entry in controller A, and all ingress and egress traffic will flow through controller A.
B. Controller A will mark the client with an anchor entry in its client database, the database, and the database entry will be copied to controller B and marked with a foreign entry.
C. Controller A will mark the client's entry in its client database as foreign, controller B will update its client database, all ingress traffic will flow through controller A, and egress traffic will flow through controller B when symmetric tunneling is disabled.
D. Controller B will update its client database and all client ingress and egress traffic will transition to the new controller.
Answer: B

Q: 12 You work as a network technician at XXYYinc.com, read this subject carefully ,then answer the question. The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report discovered APs to the Cisco WCS. What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm Summary?
A. Major
B. Critical
C. Flash
D. Minor
Answer: D

Q: 13 802.11i is a forthcoming specification that will clear up a number of security problems in 802.11. For the following items, which 802.11i key can provide data origin authenticity during the four-way handshake and the group key handshake messages?
A. Key Caching Key
B. Key Encryption Key
C. Groupwise Master Key
D. Key Confirmation Key
Answer: D

Q: 14 For the following commands, which one can determine the health of a RADIUS server on an autonomous AP?
A. show radius statistics
B. debug radius-server
C. show radius table {server_ip}
D. show radius-server {server_ip}
Answer: A

Q: 15 In order to be able to communicate with the WDS master, what must be configured on the APs while setting up a WLAN for Wireless Domain Services?
A. username and password valid on the AAA server
B. multicast group for the WDS
C. IP address of the master WDS and any backup master WDS
D. pre-shared key which matches that of the master WDS
Answer: A

Q: 16 Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers. For the following options ,which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID
B. requires CCXv5
C. implements the validation of wireless management frames
D. forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only
Answer: B, C

Q: 17 Refer to the following options, which two are long-term solutions to hidden node problems? (Choose two.)
A. enable CTS to Self
B. change the RF situation by increasing the power on client work stations (None-AP-STA)
C. increase the radio speed to at least 24 Mb/s
D. change the RF situation by adding additional access points
Answer: B, D

Q: 18 A user complains about problems authenticating via wireless. Which two of the Cisco WLC debug commands below would solve this problem? (Choose two.)
A. debug mac { addr MAC}
B. debug client authentication enable
C. debug dot1x events enable
D. debug client events enable
Answer: A, C

Q: 19 Can you tell me what the LWAPP data and control port numbers are?
A. TCP 16666 and 16667
B. UDP 16666 and 16667
C. TCP 12124 and 12134
D. UDP 12222 and 12223
Answer: D

Q: 20 The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers running v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The WLAN deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN controller running v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS authentication by use of a centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first remote office deployment, remote office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n.
Which will most likely cause this problem?
A. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n.
B. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n.
C. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS, prohibiting authentication.
D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2.
Answer: D

Q: 21 A VoWLAN user reports bad voice quality. Which three items most likely cause this problem? (Choose three.)
A. round trip delay is greater than 150 ms
B. packet loss is greater than 1%
C. jitter is greater than 30 ms
D. one-way delay is greater than 150 ms
Answer: B, C, D

Q: 22 Which is the objective of a radome?
A. to reduce the mechanical load from wind
B. to indicate which way the antenna is pointing
C. to increase the gain of an antenna
D. to mitigate interference
Answer: A

Q: 23 Do you know at what distance the curve of the earth factors into the antenna elevation calculation?
A. greater than 6 miles (~10 km)
B. 60% of the Fresnel zone
C. greater than 26 miles (~42 km)
D. the width of the Fresnel zone, which varies depending on the distance by which the bridges are separated
Answer: A

Q: 24 How do the characteristics that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
B. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers.
C. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Answer: D

Q: 25 You are a network technician . According to the following exhibit, a client configured for LEAP authentication, a RADIUS server configured for LEAP, and an autonomous AP configured as displayed. If authentication fails for the client, which is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. The client supplicant: This client is providing the wrong EAP-ID in its EAP Identity response.
B. The RADIUS server timeout: This timeout is too short; the access point will wait for the RADIUS server, then the timer will expire and authentication will fail.
C. The RADIUS server at 192.168.1.22: There is either a RADIUS key mismatch or user credentials are not matching on the RADIUS Server.
D. The AP: The AP is misconfigured, because the authentication is set to use the local database on the AP.
Answer: D

Q: 26 Which two actions will happen when a wireless client deploys a Layer 2 roam between two WLCs with management IP addresses on different IP subnets but dynamic interfaces in the same VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. The new WLC exchanges mobility messages with the original WLC and the client database entry is moved to the new WLC.
B. The client database entry is maintained on both the original and new WLCs.
C. The original WLC marks the client with an "Anchor" entry in its own client database.
D. The client database entry is removed from the original WLC once it has been entered into the new WLC.
Answer: A, D

Q: 27 What is the reason that using a tool like Cisco Spectrum Expert is important?
A. It maps the RF area to a floor plan.
B. It allows you to detect multipath.
C. It allows you to see the radiating environment at Layer 1.
D. It decodes WLAN IPS attacks
Answer: C

Q: 28 In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a local subnet, which action will AP take next?
A. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known.
B. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational.
C. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet.
D. Determine whether the controller responses are the primary controller.
Answer: B

Q: 29 Which three options are true when an H-REAP AP is in the "authentication down/local switching" state for a given WLAN? (Choose three.)
A. New WebAuth sessions are permitted.
B. The AP continues to send beacon probes and responses to keep current clients connected.
C. 802.11 roaming events incur a full 802.1X re-authentication.
D. Any new clients trying to authenticate are rejected.
Answer: B, C, D

Q: 30 Tom works as a network administrator for a company. He is asked to manually configure the Tx power on an 802.11b access point to a power level of 1 (100 mW) after implementing a Cisco 7921G wireless IP phone within a Cisco Unified Wireless Network. Which problem is the user likely to experience when the phone associates to the AP?
A. one-way audio
B. loss of connectivity to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. audio delay or jitter or both
D. the phone displays a "network busy" status message
Answer: A

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Cisco 646-656 Exam, Free Braindumps Questions

2009-07-10T11:45:00.000-07:00

Cheat-test 646-656 Certification Exam

There are many online resources for preparing for the 646-656 exam - SBCSEN Smart Business Communication Systems for Engineers. Read below to discover why Cheat-test.com is your premier source for practice tests, and true testing environment.

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646-656 Downloadable, Printable Exams (in PDF format):
We are all well aware that a major problem in the IT industry is that there is a lack of quality study materials. Our 646-656 Preparation Exam Material provides you everything you will need to take a certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, logical and verified explanations for the answers. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key.

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Riverbed 199-01 free sample questions download

2009-04-29T09:56:00.000-07:00

199-01 Riverbed Certified Solutions Professional

Cheat-test.com 199-01 Certification Exam

There are many online resources for preparing for the 199-01 exam. Read below to discover why Cheat-test.com is your premier source for practice tests, and true testing environment.

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Comprehensive questions with complete details
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Our 199-01 Exam will provide you with exam questions and verified answers that reflect the actual exam. These questions and answers provide you with the experience of taking the actual test. Our 199-01 Exam is not just questions and answers. They are your access to high technical expertise and accelerated learning capacity. Certification Experts, Certified Computer Trainers, Technical Coworker and Comprehensive Language Masters, who have a solid, verified and certified background and high technical expertise, have compiled these detailed questions and answers. Our 199-01 Certification preparation Q and A provided by Cheat-test.com will make you feel like you are taking an actual exam at a Prometric or VUE center.

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CompTIA Exam SY0-101 Study Guide

2009-01-12T20:44:00.000-08:00

Take charge of your career with certification that can increase your marketability. This new Deluxe Edition of the top-selling Security + Study Guide is what you need to prepare for CompTIA's Security+ SY0-101 exam. Developed to meet the exacting requirements of today's certification candidates and aspiring IT security professionals, this fully updated, comprehensive book includes:
* Clear and concise information on crucial security topics
* Six practical exams and over 600 practice questions, more than any other CompTIA Security+ book on the market
* Special Security Administrator's Troubleshooting Guide appendix
* Practical examples and hands-on labs to prepare you for the real world
* Leading-edge exam preparation software, including a test engine and electronic flashcards

Inside, find authoritative and coverage of all key exam topics, including:
* General security concepts
* Communication security
* Infrastructure security
* Basics of cryptography
* Operational and organizational security

This book has been reviewed and approved as CompTIA Authorized Quality Curriculum (CAQC). Students derive a number of important study advantages with CAQC materials, including coverage of all exam objectives, implementation of important instructional design principles, and instructional reviews that help students assess their learning comprehension and readiness for the exam.

Featured on the CD

SYBEX TEST ENGINE: Test your knowledge with advanced testing software. Includes all chapter review questions plus bonus exams.

ELECTRONIC FLASHCARDS: Reinforce your understanding with flashcards that can run on your PC, Pocket PC, or Palm device.

From the Back Cover
Take charge of your career with certification that can increase your marketability. This new Deluxe Edition of the top-selling Security + Study Guide is what you need to prepare for CompTIA's Security+ SY0-101 exam. Developed to meet the exacting requirements of today's certification candidates and aspiring IT security professionals, this fully updated, comprehensive book includes:
# Clear and concise information on crucial security topics
# Six practical exams and over 600 practice questions, more than any other CompTIA Security+ book on the market
# Special Security Administrator's Troubleshooting Guide appendix
# Practical examples and hands-on labs to prepare you for the real world
# Leading-edge exam preparation software, including a test engine and electronic flashcards

Inside, find authoritative and coverage of all key exam topics, including:

# General security concepts
# Communication security
# Infrastructure security
# Basics of cryptography
# Operational and organizational security

This book has been reviewed and approved as CompTIA Authorized Quality Curriculum (CAQC). Students derive a number of important study advantages with CAQC materials, including coverage of all exam objectives, implementation of important instructional design principles, and instructional reviews that help students assess their learning comprehension and readiness for the exam.

Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE) 352-001

2009-01-12T20:40:00.000-08:00

Expert Level Network Design and Architecture Experience

CCDE Assesses advanced Network Infrastructure Design Principles and Fundamentals for large networks. A CCDE can demonstrate an ability to develop solutions which address planning, design, integration, optimization, operations, security and ongoing support focused at the infrastructure level for customer networks.

It is expected that the candidate will have an in-depth understanding of the topics in the exam blueprints, a minimum of seven years job experience, and a thorough understanding of networking infrastructure principles. Please view the written exam information page for more details.

In the 352-001 exam resources, ADVDESIGN, you will cover every field and category in CCDE helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.

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Top 12 Microsoft Certification Exams in October, 2008

2008-10-26T12:04:00.000-07:00

70-296 - Planning, Implementing, and Maintaining a Microsoft Win Server 2003 Environment for a W2K MCSE
70-656 - TS:Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack, Configuring
70-270 - MCSA Installing, Configuring, and Administering Microsoft Windows XP Professional
70-536 - TS:MS.NET Framework 2.0-Application Develop Foundation
70-284 - MCSA 2003 Installing, Configuring, and Administering Microsoft Exchange 2003 Server
70-528 - MS.NET Framework 2.0-Web-based Client Development
70-315 - MCAD .NET Developing and Implementing Web Applications with Microsoft Visual C# .NET
70-292 - MCSA Managing and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Environment for a W2K MCSA
70-620 - TS:Configuring Windows Vista Client
70-646 - Pro:Windows Server 2008, Server Administrator
70-431 - Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Implementation & Maintenance
70-290 - MCDBA Managing and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Environment

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News: Cheat-test Published New Site and New Versions of Microsoft Related Exams

2008-10-26T11:52:00.000-07:00

Recently, Cheat-test Published New Site and New Versions of Microsoft Related Exams, there are two vital changes from Cheat-test.com.

I. Cheat-test changed its style which has been lasted about three years, and add a number of new columns and functions:

* Latest&Update-Any change for each exam will be listed here in time, you can check whether the exam you purchased is updated or not recently. Weekly Rank-Those exams which are most concerned by the candidates will be listed here, you can take it as a reference to head for which certificate.
* Affiliate program will be available soon -The users will be able to share the profit with Cheat-test by joining affiliate program free.
* Sell to us: The users can share the valuable things no matter study materials or experience to others through Cheat-test, at the same time, will also get a certain amount of revenue from Cheat-test.
* Cheat-test will announce the new products here which are expected to be released in the near future, also the users who reserve these products before they are ready for sale will enjoy a big discount.

II. Cheat-test re-opens the Microsoft Related Exams:

* The first batch of Cheat-test MS exams are available now, and all of the rest are returning gradually.
* All the questions pools are re-built by Cheat-test technical team with detail explanations.
* Cheat-test will integrate the examination resources rely on the Microsoft platform to provide more comprehensive and more professional services for all IT associated persons.

There are some Microsfot Exams which cheat-test.com, every Microsoft candidate can get more information:

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